2014年1月31日星期五

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Exam Code: 000-671
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Systems Networking Sales V1)
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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Capacity Manager ServeRaid Manager and cluster Systems Management are
comprehensive tools provided by which IBM Director feature?
A. Update Connector
B. Resource Monitoring
C. Electronic Service Agent
D. Director Extensions
Answer: D

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NO.2 When comparing the high availability features of the xSeries 235 and xSeries 255
servers, which feature is a standard feature of the x235 ONLY?
A. Chipkill memory
B. Active PCI-X support
C. Hot swap hard disk drives
D. Integrated RAID-1 support
E. Integrated systems management processor
Answer: D

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NO.3 The IBM Director function that allows administrators to use a command line
session to execute commands on the managed system is __________
A. File transfer
B. Process management
C. Remote session
D. Remote control
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of ASMPs and ASM asapters that can be configured
into one ASM Interconnect Network?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 36
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two 2 of the following IBM xSeries servers include a standard ISMP, and can
upgrade system management capabilities by installing a Remote Supervisor
Adapter?
A. xSeries 225
B. xSeries 235
C. xSeries 305
D. xSeries 345
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 When comparing the IBM ServeRAID-4Mx and ServRAID-4Lx adapters, which
feature is available on the ServeRAID-4Mx ONLY?
A. Ultra 160 SCSI
B. Dual Address Cycle (DAC)
C. 64-bit PCI 2.2 at 66/33 MHz interface
D. 64 MB battery-backed ECC data cache memory
Answer: D

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NO.7 An ISP requires an ultra-dense 2-way high performance rack server to provide as
much capacity as possible in a crowded data center. The budget is tight so total cost
of ownership is a consideration. The customer needs a solution that is easy to install
and configure, and which makes adding or replacing servers simple. Which one of
the following IBM xSeries servers would best meet these requirements?
A. xSeries 305
B. xSeries 335
C. xSeries 345
D. xSeries 360
Answer: B

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NO.8 A Proxy server is an example of what server type?
A. Centralized
B. Client/server
C. Device sharing
D. Web
Answer: D

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NO.9 Ten members of the Research staff in a small company have individual dial-up
connections to the Internet. This is costing the company a lot of money. Which
server type would provide the BEST solution to reduce the cost of internet access,
and at the same time allow the company to better manage their wide area
connections?
A. A centralized file server with a single, high-speed internet connection, managed by a
member of the IT team who downloads the pages required by the Research Department.
B. A company-wide proxy server with a single high-speed internetconnection, providing
internet access to all staff in the Research Department.
C. A database server, using an off-line dial-up connection, which caches and sorts the
pages required by the Research Department
D. An HTTP server which downloads and mirrors the previous day page requests from
the Research Department
Answer: B

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NO.10 What LAN hardware device is used to connect two network or systems?. This device
is protocol-independent but hardware-specific.
A. Bridge
B. Ateway
C. Repeater
D. Router
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which items from the following list are X-architecture Guiding Principles?
1- To drive and enhance industry standards
2- To make servers easier to service
3- To make servers easier to deploy and use
4- To make IBM servers easier to sell
5- To strive toward uninterrupted computing for intel processor-based servers
6- To lead the industry in driving down the cost of enterprise computing
A. 2,3,4,only
B. 1,3,5,6 only
C. 1,2,4,5, only
D. 2,5,6, only
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following system management functions is supported only by the
Remote Supervisor Adapter
A. e-mail alerts
B. Generate SNMP traps
C. IBM Director via LAN
D. Automatic shutdown/restart
Answer: A

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NO.13 Web-based management, DNS/DHCP support and e-mail alerts are functions of the
IBM__________
A. Remote Supervisor adapter
B. Netfinity Advanced System Management PCI adapter
C. xSeries 225 interated System Management function
D. xSeries 345 integrated System Management processor.
Answer: A

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NO.14 A company wants to track applications installed on their network systems using a
dictionary file with many predefined software product files. They also want to
collect hardware and software data when a managed system is first discovered and
at reular intervals after that. Which of the following IBM Director features would
be used to perform this function?
A. Resource Monitoring
B. Inventory Management
C. Software DISTRIBUTION
D. DMI Browser
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two of the following IBM xSeries servers listed below are equipped with an
intel Pentium 4 processor?
A. xSeries 205
B. xSeries 225
C. xSeries 305
D. xSeries 335
Answer: A,C

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NO.16 The technology built into most IBM xSeries servers that can drastically reduce
service time by visually guiding the technician to a faulty component is called
A. IBM Director
B. Serverguide
C. Light-path diagnostics.
D. Predictive failure analysis.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following is a RAID controller device that contains Fiber Channel
Interfaces to connect the host systems and disk drive enclosures?
A. EXP300
B. SAN FC Switch
C. FAST Storage Server
D. RXE-100 Remote Expansion Enclosure
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which IBM xSeries server is an affordable entry-level uniprocessor server with
rack-mount support provided by an optional rack conversion ket?
A. xSeries 205
B. xSeries 225
C. xSeries 335
D. xSeries 345
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which two of the following allow RAID-5E to provide better protection than the
standard RAID-5?
A. Hot-space defined as part of the array
B. More than one logical drive in the array
C. Stripes data and parity across all of the drives in the array
D. Two drives in the array could fail, but not at the same time.
Answer: A,D

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NO.20 How many of the IBM xSeries 345 server PCI expansion slots are Active PCI slots?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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Exam Code: COG-180
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 8 BI Professional )
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Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following describes the major steps in the deployment process for a Cognos 8 BI
application and their proper order?
A.Plan, verify, and customize
B.Move, customize, and verify
C.Plan, move, and secure
D.Plan, move, and verify
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which of the following is a significant cause of failure when using the technology-focused approach to
BI Application development?
A.Users often have difficulty understanding new technology.
B.New technology often contains internal flaws and errors that affect the delivered solution.
C.The solution is focused on a single subject area.
D.Developers often focus on just the data.
Answer:D

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NO.3 The V-Model testing process specifies that developers should both verify and validate each test. Which
of the following describes how developers would validate their tests in the design step of the V-model?
A.Check the design by conducting an assembly test.
B.Check the design by conducting a component test.
C.Check the design against the business requirements.
D.Check the design against the developed components.
Answer:C

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NO.4 Which of the following is correct regarding the processing of a PageDown high affinity request?
A.The request is routed to the same process that served up the originating low affinity request if the
process is available and if there is an available high affinity connection.
B.The request is given priority and is always processed by the same process that served up the
originating low affinity request.
C.The request is load-balanced and is sent to any available dispatcher in the system.
D.The request is automatically queued and is processed by the first available low affinity connection in the
system.
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which of the following is correct regarding report execution requests?
A.A low affinity request is directed to the same process that served up the originating low affinity request if
the process is available and there is an available high affinity connection.
B.A low affinity request can be processed using a high affinity connection when a low affinity connection is
not available.
C.An absolute affinity request does not require a connection because it has priority.
D.A high affinity request can be processed using a low affinity connection if there are no high affinity
connections available.
Answer:D

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2014年1月29日星期三

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Exam Code: SCNP
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NO.1 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = EK1[DK2[EK1[P]]] ) , what is the function of C?
A. C is the text before encryption
B. C is the first encryption key
C. C is the second encryption key
D. C is the decryption key
E. C is the text after encryption
Answer: E

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NO.2 You have just become the senior security professional in your office. After you have taken a complete
inventory of the network and resources, you begin to work on planning for a successful security
implementation in the network. You are aware of the many tools provided for securing
Windows 2003 machines in your network. What is the function of Secedit.exe?
A. This tool is used to set the NTFS security permissions on objects in the domain.
B. This tool is used to create an initial security database for the domain.
C. This tool is used to analyze a large number of computers in a domain-based infrastructure.
D. This tool provides an analysis of the local system NTFS security.
E. This tool provides a single point of management where security options can be applied to a local
computer or can be imported to a GPO.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are discussing the design and infrastructure of the Internet with several colleagues when a
disagreement begins over the actual function of the NAP in the Internets design. What is the function of a
NAP in the physical structure of the Internet?
A. The NAP provides for a layered connection system of ISPs connecting to the backbone.
B. The NAP provides the actual connection point between a local user and the Internet.
C. The NAP provides the physical network with communication channels for the Internet and voice/data
applications.
D. The NAP provides a national interconnection of systems, called peering centers, to the NSPs.
E. The NAP provides for a connection point between an ISP and the backbone of the Internet.
Answer: E

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NO.4 In order for your newly written security policy to have any weight, it must be implemented. Which of the
following are the three components of a successful Security Policy Implementation in an organization?
A. Policy Monitoring
B. Policy Design
C. Policy Committee
D. Policy Enforcement
E. Policy Documentation
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. NetBus Scan
B. Trojan Scan
C. Ping Sweep
D. Port Scan
E. Ping Sweep
Answer: D

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NO.6 What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher
Answer: C

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NO.7 In the past it was, at times, difficult to locate current information on security vulnerabilities. What is the
name of the security communitys effort to create a comprehensive database of multiple vulnerabilities and
security tools?
A. Common Vulnerabilities and Exploits
B. Cataloged Venerations and Exposures
C. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
D. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exposures
E. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exploits
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are working on the authentication systems in your network, and are concerned with your legacy
systems. In Windows NT 4.0, before Service Pack 4 (SP4), there were only two supported methods of
authentication. What were those two methods?
A. NetBIOS
B. LM
C. NTLM
D. NTLMv2
E. Kerberos
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 What is the name of the informational page that is relevant to a particular command in Linux?
A. Readme Page
B. Lnx_nfo Page
C. Man Page
D. X_Win Page
E. Cmd_Doc Page
Answer: C

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NO.10 To increase the security of your network and systems, it has been decided that EFS will be implemented
in the appropriate situations. Two users are working on a common file, and often email this file back and
forth between each other. Is this a situation where the use of EFS will create effective security, and why
(or why not)?
A. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for encryption.
B. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for encryption the security will increase.
C. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for decryption.
D. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for decryption the security will increase.
E. No, EFS cannot be used for files that are shared between users.
Answer: E

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NO.11 What is a problem with symmetric key cryptography?
A. It is slower than asymmetric key cryptography
B. Secure distribution of the public key
C. There is a lack of encryption protocols that can use symmetric key cryptography
D. Secure distribution of a secret key
E. Symmetric key cryptography is reserved for the NSA
Answer: D

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NO.12 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

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NO.13 You are configuring the lines that control access to exported objects on your server running NFS. If you
have a directory called /Tech and you wish to export this directory to network 192.168.20.0/24, allowing
root access, and the permissions of read and write, which of the following lines will accomplish this?
A. (RW) no_root_squash /Tech 192.168.20.0/24
B. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24 (rw) no_root_squash
C. (RW) no_root_squash 192.168.20.0/24 /Tech
D. (RW)no_root_squash:/Tech 192.168.20.0/24
E. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24(rw) no_root_squash
Answer: E

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NO.14 You have become the lead security professional for a mid-sized organization. You are currently
studying DNS issues, and configuration options. You come across the concepts of DNS Spoofing, and
investigate more. What is DNS Spoofing?
A. DNS Spoofing is when the DNS client submits a false DNS request to the DNS server, and the DNS
server responds with correct data.
B. DNS Spoofing is the DNS client submits a DNS request to the DNS server using a bogus IP address,
and the DNS server responds to the incorrect host.
C. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS Server responds to an unauthorized DNS client, providing that client with
name resolution.
D. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS client is forced to make a DNS query to an imposter DNS server, which
send the client to an imposter resource.
E. DNS spoofing is when a DNS server provides name resolution to clients that are located in a different
IP subnet than the server itself.
Answer: D

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NO.15 You are configuring the permissions to a file, called file1, on your Linux file server. You wish to change
the permissions to remove the execute permission from the others and group. Which of the following
commands will complete this task?
A. umask x-og file1
B. umask og-x file1
C. chmod xog- file1
D. chmod x-og file1
E. chmod og-x file1
Answer: E

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NO.16 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.17 If you encrypt or decrypt files and folders located on a remote computer that has been enabled for
remote encryption; the data that is transmitted over the network by this process is not encrypted. In order
to keep data encrypted as it is transmitted over the network, which of the following must you do?
A. You must implement EFS.
B. You must implement B2 security for Windows.
C. You must use IPSec.
D. You must use a recovery agent.
E. You must transmit the entire folder, not individual files.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.19 On Monday, during a routine check of a users Windows workstation, you find the following program,
called regedit.bat on the users local hard drive:
Net localgroup administrators local /all Start regedit.exe Exit
What is this program capable of doing on this computer?
A. Nothing, the first line is coded wrong.
B. It will add the administrators to the local group
C. It will add the local user to all local groups
D. It will add the administrators to all local groups
E. It will add the local user to the administrators group
Answer: E

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NO.20 Attackers have the ability to use programs that are able to reveal local passwords by placing some kind
of a pointer/cursor over the asterisks in a program's password field. The reason that such tools can
uncover passwords in some Operating Systems is because:
A. the passwords are simply masked with asterisks
B. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT32 partition
C. the passwords are decrypted on screen
D. the password text is stored in ASCII format
E. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT16 partition
Answer: A

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NO.21 Often times attackers will run scans against the network to identify different network and operating
systems, and resources that are available. If an attacker runs scans on the network, and you are logging
the connections, which of the following represent the legitimate combination of packets that will be sent
between the attacker and target?
A. Attacker PSH-FIN Scan, Target RST-FIN Response
B. Attacker ACK Scan, Target NULL Response
C. Attacker NULL Scan, Target RST Response
D. Attacker SYN Scan, Target NULL Response
E. Attacker FIN Scan, Target RST Response
Answer: C,E

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NO.22 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your
company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially dangerous
Social
Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the call the
writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite the administrator to
speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller asks the
receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and
software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in
evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk asking to
reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming from the ISP
to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network's configuration data and the
emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover to the new equipment.
Answer: D,E

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NO.23 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on Physical
and Environmental Security.?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to
business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and interruption to
business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information
security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: B

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NO.24 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the information
that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to evaluate is the
information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the following, what pieces of
information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.25 To maintain the security of your network you routinely run several checks of the network
andcomputers.
Often you use the built-in tools, such as netstat. If you run the following command: netstat -e whichof the
following will be the result?
A. Displays all connections and listening ports
B. Displays Ethernet statistics
C. Displays addresses and port numbers in numerical form
D. Shows connections for the protocol specified
E. Displays per-protocol statistics
Answer: B

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NO.26 During the configuration of your Linux system, you are working with the available drives in
thecomputer.
What syntax defines the First (Primary) IDE hard disk drive?
A. /dev/sda
B. /dev/fda
C. /dev/hd1
D. /dev/hda
E. /dev/fd1
Answer: D

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NO.27 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has
connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the
site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting
ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP.
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following are symmetric encryption algorithms?
A. MD5
B. RSA
C. Diffie-Hellman
D. 3DES
E. AES
Answer: D,E

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NO.29 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Business Continuity Planning?
A. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
B. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information security.
C. The objectives of this section are to counteract interruptions to business activities and to critical
business processes from the effects of major failures or disasters.
D. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: C

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NO.30 You have just downloaded a new file, called scnpfile.tar.gz. You are going to verify the file prior to
un-archiving the file. Which command do you need to type to un-compress the file, prior to unarchiving?
A. tar xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
B. tar -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
C. gunzip scnpfile.tar.gz
D. gunzip -xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
E. gunzip -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ITIL-F
Exam Name: EXIN (ITIL Foundation)
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Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be
defined?
A.Service design: Design the processes
B.Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C.Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D.Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A.Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B.Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C.Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D.Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A.To identify patterns of business activity
B.To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C.To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D.To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Answer: B

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NO.4 The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are these four
Ps?
A.People, process, partners, performance
B.Performance, process, products, plans
C.People, process, products, partners
D.People, products, plans, partners
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?
A.Service level management
B.IT operations management
C.Capacity management
D.Incident management
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A.Allows higher volumes of successful change
B.Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C.Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D.Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that
involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A.Change proposal
B.Change policy
C.Service request
D.Risk register
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A.Process owner
B.Change manager
C.Service manager
D.Process practitioner
Answer: D

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NO.9 Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A.Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B.Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C.Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D.Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A.Incident and financial management
B.Change and release and deployment management
C.Incident and event management
D.Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ECP-102
Exam Name: Ericsson (Ericsson Certified Technology – IP)
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Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which two statements are correct about link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Packets are routed based upon the shortest path to the destination.
B. Paths are chosen based upon the number of hops to the destination.
C. The exchange of advertisement is triggered by a change in the network.
D. In a multipoint network, all routers exchange routing tables directly with all the routers.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 What are two advantages of using NAT in a network? (Choose two.)
A. to provide encryption for all IP traffic
B. to efficiently compress the IP packet
C. to hide private IP addresses from the Internet
D. to reduce the use of public IP addresses in a network
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 What does TCP use to set up a connection?
A. Two-way handshake
B. Sliding window
C. Three-way handshake
D. Four-way handshake
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about MPLS encapsulation in relation to other protocols?
(Choose two.)
A. MPLS encapsulates IP packets.
B. UDP encapsulates MPLS packets.
C. TCP encapsulates MPLS packets.
D. Ethernet encapsulates MPLS packets.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 IPv6 addresses can be classified into which three categories? (Choose three.)
A. anycast
B. broadcast
C. multicast
D. hexcast
E. unicast
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.6 Which three techniques allow for the co-existence of IPv4 and IPv6 networks? (Choose three.)
A. tunneling
B. anycasting
C. translation
D. encoding
E. dual-stacking
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two statements are correct regarding QoS in an IP network using DiffServ? (Choose
two.)
A. High priority traffic can be dropped by any router in the network.
B. Packets belonging to the same QoS class always traverse the same path regardless of IGP
topology change.
C. Routers reserve required bandwidth before they start forwarding packets for a given class.
D. QoS procedures applied to a given traffic class are the same for all routers within the DiffServ
domain.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Computer A with IP address 192.168.1.1 / 24 wants to send a packet to computer B with IP
address 192.168.2.1 / 24. Which statement is correct?
A. Computer A will send an ARP request to computer B.
B. Computer A will encode the destination MAC address of computer B.
C. Computer A will use its default gateway.
D. Computer A will send a network discovery request to computer B.
Answer: C

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NO.9 An edge router forwards a mixture of VoIP and IPTV traffic over the same port.
Which two QoS scheduling algorithms would you use to assure good VoIP call quality when the port
is congested? (Choose two.)
A. PQ
B. WFQ
C. PWFQ
D. WRED
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Why must the distance between two IP networks be less than 16 routers when using RIP as a
routing protocol?
A. RIP is a classful routing protocol.
B. RIP converges too slowly.
C. RIP uses a metric of 16 as infinite.
D. RIP uses 16 seconds as a hold timer.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: E20-616
Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist)
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Total Q&A: 241 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 What is a major difference in director data flow between the Symmetrix 8000 series and a DMX-2?
A. An 8430 uses loop redundancy
B. An 8530's directors are connected to two data busses
C. Directors in a DMX-2 are connected to top high and bottom low
D. DMX-2 port bypass cards are connected directly to cache
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which component of a DMX-2 performs Front End, director-to-director communications?
A. CCM
B. ECM
C. LCC
D. PBC
Answer: A

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NO.3 A DMX-2 memory configuration containing four (4) memory boards is to be upgraded to larger size
cache boards. The upgrade results in a two (2) memory board configuration. How will the bandwidth of
the DMX-2 be affected by the upgrade?
A. Decreased by the smaller cache card count
B. Increased by the larger memory size
C. Unchanged, only memory size is affected
D. Will remain at the theoretical maximum
Answer: B

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NO.4 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is CCM0?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which type of Symmetrix volume contains information on the dynamic mirror policy decisions, error
logging, event traces, code image storage, and a dedicated lost write area?
A. BCV
B. Data
C. DRV
D. SFS
Answer: D

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NO.6 A service processor fails to communicate with directors 1 through 8 in the DMX-2 series. Which
component can cause this failure?
A. CCM0
B. ECM0
C. ECM1
D. XCM
Answer: A

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NO.7 When will a customer's host be able to access the data on a BCV?
A. After the BCV is established
B. After the BCV is split
C. When the BCV is created in the Bin
D. While the BCV is syncing with the data volume
Answer: B

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NO.8 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of a Symmetrix DMX22000/3000 Card Cage. Where will you find ECM1?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.9 On a DMX1000P, how many DAs are required?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.10 What does the Interleave Service Policy manage during a read operation?
A. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 randomly
B. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 alternatively
C. Reads the tracks only from M1
D. Tracks measurements of I/O on logical volumes and chooses the appropriate mirror
Answer: B

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NO.11 When is the relationship between a data volume and a BCV created?
A. When the BCV is created in the bin file
B. When the BCV is established
C. When the BCV is split
D. When the BCV is varied on
Answer: B

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NO.12 All the memory slots in a DMX-1000 are occupied. In this case, what is run from the procedure Wizard
to perform Memory Replacement?
A. Add Memory Board script to the Universal slot script, run Replace Memory Board Script, and replace
that board
B. Remove Memory Board script first and then Add Memory Board Script
C. Replace Memory Board script
D. Upgrade Memory Board script
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is a difference between a Symmetrix 8830 and a DMX-2?
A. An 8830 24-slot card cage is scalable
B. Disks on a DMX-2 are FC-AL
C. DMX-2 uses a cache interconnect multi-drop bus
D. Maximum system bandwidth on an 8830 is 16Gb/s
Answer: B

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NO.14 How is DPR enabled?
A. By the EMC z/OS Storage Manager
B. In the bin file
C. Inlines Command
D. On the host by z/OS
Answer: B

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NO.15 When looking at the DMX FA Back Adapter, you notice that one of the SFPs is blue. What does this
mean?
A. Long wave, multi mode port
B. Long wave, single mode port
C. Short wave, multi mode port
D. Short wave, single mode port
Answer: B

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NO.16 A customer's AC power fails to a Symmetrix 8430/8530. In this case, which components will the
battery subsystem sustain?
A. Card cage and disks
B. Communication cards and service processors
C. Disk drives and memory
D. Memory cards and service processor
Answer: A

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NO.17 Click the exhibit button.
The customer has handed you this service alert error message. What is the error?
A. Alarm signal set
B. PC failed to call home due to communication problems
C. Temperature problems
D. Mirror device is not ready at time of periodic test
Answer: D

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NO.18 A customer wants to set up an FA port for a 10km distance connection. Which optic mode will meet the
customer's need?
A. Long wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
B. Long wave, Fibre Single Mode port
C. Short wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
D. Short wave, Fibre Single Mode port
Answer: B

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NO.19 A customer wants to change Host Directors to support SRDF. What distinguishes one director type
from another within a Symmetrix 8000 series?
A. Director model number
B. Director revision
C. Emulation code
D. Enginuity code level
Answer: C

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NO.20 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is ECM1?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-340
Exam Name: EMC (Clariion solutiongs implementation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 A customer would like to extend their CX4 cache after purchasing Flash drives.
Which Unisphere dialog should be used to configure this feature?
A.Storage System Properties, FAST Cache tab
B.Storage SP Properties, Cache tab
C.Storage SP Properties, SP Memory tab
D.Storage System Properties, SP Cache
Answer: A

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NO.2 When working with FLARE 30, which tool is required when upgrading FLARE or performing a DAE
upgrade?
A.Unisphere Service Manager
B.Unisphere Server Utility
C.Unisphere Initialization Utility
D.NDU Upgrade Tool
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has a CX4 series CLARiiON and is experiencing a problem with SPA. Upon arrival you
notice that the SPA Fault LED is amber and flashing at a rate of four times a second.
What is the boot state of SPA?
A.POST Starting OS
B.OS Booted
C.Executing BIOS
D.FLARE Driver Complete
Answer: A

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit. Which port has a fixed IP and subnet mask?
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
Answer: A

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
What is the correct order of the management module components?
A.GbE Service LAN; B-GbE Management LAN; C-Service Port COM1; D-SPS Port COM2; E-NMI Button
B.GbE Management LAN; B-GbE Service LAN; C-Service Port COM1; D-SPS Port COM2; E-NMI Button
C.SPS Port COM2; B-NMI Button; C-Service Port COM1; D-GbE Service LAN; E-GbE Management LAN
D.GbE Service LAN; B-GbE Management LAN; C-SPS Port COM2; D-Service Port COM1; E-NMI Button
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer has a domain and for security reasons, management and CLI features can only be
performed from the SAN team workstations.
How would IP filtering be configured?
A.SAN team workstation IP addresses
B.SPA IP addresses
C.DNS IP addresses
D.Management stations ¯ I P add r esse
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are implementing Unisphere security on a CX4 CLARiiON with FLARE 30. The customer has
requested that all certificates be validated when naviseccli is used.
What level of certificate validation does EMC recommend be set for naviseccli?
A.Medium
B.High
C.Low
D.Ignore
Answer: A

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NO.8 How many CLARiiON arrays are qualified to be in a single domain?
A.100
B.96
C.48
D.128
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which access restrictions are enabled if IP address filtering is configured on a CLARiiON?
A.Specific management clients
B.iSCSI ports, and ESRS communications
C.Unisphere service ports
D.iSCSI ports
Answer: A

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NO.10 What software is used to assign IP addresses when installing a new CLARiiON?
A.Unisphere Initialization Utility
B.Unisphere Server Utility
C.Unisphere Service Manager
D.Unisphere Client
Answer: A

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NO.11 What do drives 0_0_0 to 0_0_4 in a CX4 contain?
A.FLARE and vault
B.Linux OS and metadata
C.DART and vault
D.Enginuity and metadata
Answer: A

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NO.12 A customer has requested onsite assistance because they are currently unable to communicate with
SPA.
You arrive onsite and connect to the GbE Service LAN. What IP address do you use to connect to SPA?
A.128.221.1.250
B.192.168.1.250
C.128.221.1.251
D.192.168.1.251
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer would like to configure NTP using Unisphere. What is the minimum polling time allowed for
NTP?
A.30 minutes
B.60 minutes
C.15 minutes
D.10 minutes
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the maximum number of disk drives that can be configured in a pool on a CX4-480.?
A.475
B.16
C.480
D.32
Answer: A

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NO.15 How many front-end ports are required to provide failover between SPs for eight direct-attached hosts
on a CX4?
A.16
B.8
C.4
D.2
Answer: A

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