2013年11月30日星期六

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Exam Code: 190-982
Exam Name: Lotus (Administering IBM Lotus Quickr 8.1 Services for WebSphere Po)
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Total Q&A: 95 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Policies for Lotus Quickr are grouped in which of the following manners?
A.According to alphabetical order
B.According to the types of resources
C.According to who created the policies
D.According to the sort order for the Lotus Quickr libraries
Answer: B

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NO.2 To simplify default role assignments to be propagated to all individual resources through inheritance,
which of the following would you utilize?
A.Role ranges
B.Domain XMLAccess
C.Virtual resources
D.Image propagation
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have configured multiple instances of Lotus Quickr on a single WebSphere Application Server. To
configure each, you must access Lotus Quickr via a Web browser to a fully qualified domain name,
followed by the port. Which of the following is the default transport port that is created by WebSphere
Application Server?
A.80
B.8088
C.10038
D.18808
Answer: C

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NO.4 To support Portal Search in a clustered architecture, the search service should be installed in which of
the following?
A.Locally
B.Remotely
C.On each node
D.On the Web server
Answer: B

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NO.5 Gregory is configuring the People Finder for his company's Lotus Quickr environment. He is assigning
fields to be shown by the People Finder. In which of the following locations are the fields that correspond
to the attributes defined?
A.qpconfig.xml
B.Member Manager
C.CSEnvironment.properties
D.Person Attribute Service Object
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EE2-181
Exam Name: Legato (Certified EmailXtender Administrator)
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Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 How does the EmailXtender Domain listner function on Windows platforms?
A. It links into the mail.box and makes an entry in the notes.InI file.
B. The Domino milter is turned on during the installation of the listener
C. It listens on SMTP port 25 and intercepts all incoming and outgoing email.
D. It is triggered by a "at_msg_post" evnt to copy content from user;s NSF files
Answer: A

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NO.2 What will enabling "Remove Duplicate" prior to performing a search accomplish?
A. removes duplicate instances of a message from the archive
B. returns only messages that are not a part of a distribution list
C. returns only the first instance of a message sent to a distribution list
D. removes duplicate instances of a message from the information store
E. removes duplicate instances of a message from the search results page
Answer: E

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NO.3 Certkiller .com has 8,000 mailbox in two locations: 5,500 at site A and 2,500 at site B.
They plan to capture all messages in a central location.
How many servers should they have and how should they deploy them?
A. one server in site A
B. two servers in site A
C. one server in site A and 1 server in site B
D. two servers in site A and one servers in site B
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is NOT indexed by EmailXtender?
A. Zip files
B. PDF files
C. JPEG files
D. Microsoft Visio documents
E. Microsoft Word documents
Answer: C

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NO.5 A securities company has 4000 users split between Paris, Zurich, and London. Each
site has two Domino servers and a connection to the internet for incoming and
outgoing email. The connections between the sites are highly-speed and utilization is
moderate.
What should you do to ensure that all communications are forwarded to the
Emailxtender server?
A. You install Emailxtender in Paris and use EmailXtract to gather all email from all
Domain servers at night when traffic slows down.
B. You install a central EmailXtender server in Paris, Install the EmailEtender Domino
installer on all Domino servers, and configure EmailXtender to pull from all mail servers.
C. You install a central EmailXtender server in Paris, install the listener only on the Paris
servers. You create a task in EmailXtract to pull all email from London and Zurich at
night when traffic slows down.
D. You install an EmailXtender server at each site. Since each site has its own connection
to the internet, this configuration will be required to assure that incoming, outgoing, and
site specific email will be captured.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which product feature can be leveraged to perform archival of historical email
messages from restored back-up tapes in response to a legal discovery request?
A. EmailXtract's archive task
B. EmailXtract's ANALYSIS TASK
C. EmailXtender's search client
D. EmailXtender's message review function
Answer: A

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NO.7 What does LEGATO recommend you configure before enabling journaling in
Exchange? (Choose three)
A. archive tasks
B. shortcut tasks
C. exclusive rules
D. collection rules
E. sample periods
F. retention periods
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.8 A bank has requested a sizing estimate for their email archive:
The bank has provided the following details:
The number of users = 11000
Average message size = 100KB
Average number of messages per day = 35
Number of days per work week = 5
Number of weeks per year = 51
Constants:
EmailXtender compression ratio = 50%
EmailXtender index ratio = 10%
Hourly throughput of EmailXtender Server = 1 GB/Hour
1 TB = 1024 GB
1GB = 1024 MB
1 MB = 1024 KB
How much email (GB) does the bank transmit in a given year?
A. 9363 GB
B. 9818 GB
C. 13401 GB
D. 14053 GB
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two statement are true about the Deletion Task? (choose two)
A. The Deletion Task can be run in simulation mode.
B. The Deletion Task can remove messages from the mail servers message stores
C. The Deletion Task can archive messages without removing them from the mail server.
D. The Deletion Task can shortcut messages before removing them from the mail server.
E. The Deletion Task can remove messages from the EmailXtender archives and the mail
server.
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 Which report provides details about sampling settings and message review group
membership?
A. Configuration report
B. Group Activity report
C. Message Detail report
D. Group Membership report
Answer: A

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Exam Code: JN0-140
Exam Name: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-AC) 140 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 If Host Checker restrictions are applied at the role level and the "Allow access to the role if any ONE of
the select policies is passed" option is unchecked, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. All roles are evaluated together.
B. Each role is evaluated separately.
C. Clients must pass all policies to access the role.
D. Clients will pass as long as one policy is accepted.
Answer: BC

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NO.2 A customer has installed UAC in their network. They have both Windows and Linux endpoints and
must choose a deployment method that everyone can use. Which deployment method allows for multiple
platforms?
A. IPsec enforcement
B. 802.1X enforcement
C. Source IP enforcement
D. Odyssey Access Client
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two methods of authentication are used by the Infranet Controller for IPSec enforcement?
(Choose two.)
A. dial-up VPN
B. IKE authentication
C. XAuth authentication
D. shared IKE authentication
Answer: AC

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NO.4 When the Infranet Enforcer is set up in transparent mode, which additional resource policy must be
configured to use OAC for IPsec enforcement?
A. IPsec Routing
B. Access Control
C. IP Address Pool
D. Source Interface
Answer: D

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NO.5 What must be updated regularly to detect the newest versions of personal firewalls on endpoints?
A. Infranet Enforcer firmware
B. Infranet Controller rollback software
C. Host Security Assessment Plug-in (HSAP)
D. Endpoint Security Assessment Plug-in (ESAP)
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about applying Host Checker at the realm level? (Choose two.)
A. If Evaluate is checked then the client must pass policy to get the sign-in page.
B. If Evaluate is checked then the client can fail policy and still get the sign-in page.
C. If Require and Enforce is checked then the client must pass policy to get the sign-in page.
D. If Require and Enforce is checked then the client can fail policy and still get the sign-in page.
Answer: BC

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NO.7 Which action is optional when adding an authentication realm for use on an Infranet Controller?
A. Modify sign-in policy.
B. Configure role mapping.
C. Assign authentication server.
D. Configure authentication policy.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the primary purpose of creating a Location Group Policy?
A. to associate more than one realm with an authentication server
B. to logically group network access devices and associate them with specific sign-in policies C. to allow
or prevent users from accessing resources in specific locations on the network
D. to define the URL that users of network access devices can use to access the Infranet Controller
Answer: B

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NO.9 Your company has a mix of employees and contractors. Contractor usernames always begin with
"con-"; employee usernames never begin with "con-". You need to give employees access to all
resources and give contractors access to a limited set of resources. Employee and contractor roles have
been created with the appropriate access privileges, and the realm is set to merge settings for all
assigned roles. Which role mapping ruleset would result in the correct access privileges being assigned?
A. username="*" -> Employee-role Stop username="con-*" -> Contractor-role
B. username="*" -> Employee-role username="con-*" -> Contractor-role Stop
C. username="con-*" -> Contractor-role Stop username="*" -> Employee-role
D. username="con-*" -> Contractor-role username="*" -> Employee-role Stop
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which log contains information about service restarts, system errors, warnings, and requests to check
server connectivity?
A. Events log
B. System log
C. User Access log
D. Admin Access log
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which additional configuration must be completed when setting up role restrictions using certificates?
A. Set up a certificate authentication server.
B. Configure the authentication realm to remember certificate information.
C. Configure the authentication realm to use a certificate server for authentication.
D. Configure a role mapping rule requiring certification information to map user to role.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What happens when Host Checker is configured to perform checks every "0" minutes?
A. Host Checker is disabled.
B. Host Checker will perform continous checks.
C. Host Checker will perform checks when user logs out.
D. Host Checker will perform checks when user first logs in.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which configuration option can be set either in the initial console menu or the Admin UI of the Infranet
Controller?
A. VLAN ID
B. Hostname
C. Domain name
D. Administrative timeout
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which two actions are required to configure an Infranet Enforcer to communicate with an Infranet
Controller? (Choose two.)
A. Enable SSH.
B. Configure DNS.
C. Enable route mode.
D. Set certificate validation options.
Answer: AD

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NO.15 Which statement is correct about defining an Infranet Enforcer for use as a RADIUS Client?
A. You do not need to configure a RADIUS client policy.
B. You must know the exact model number of the Infranet Enforcer.
C. You must specify the NACN password of the device in the RADIUS client policy.
D. You do not need to designate a location group to which the Infranet Enforcer will belong.
Answer: A

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NO.16 On a pre-existing OAC, which three options can the Infranet Controller overwrite when the user
accesses the Infranet Controller? (Choose three.)
A. SSID
B. login name
C. MAC address
D. wired adapters
E. encryption method
Answer: ADE

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NO.17 Which interface does the Infranet Controller use to push the configuration?
A. trusted port
B. internal port
C. trust interface
D. untrust interface
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is true about the operation of the Infranet Enforcer?
A. It assigns users a set of roles.
B. It allows access based on auth table entries.
C. It verifies whether an endpoint meets security requirements.
D. It configures the UAC agent to allow or deny access to resources.
Answer: B

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NO.19 What will serve as a RADIUS Client to the Infranet Controller for 802.1x authentication?
A. an ACE server
B. a wireless network
C. an Ethernet switch
D. Odyssey Access Client
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which three statements about dynamic filtering are true? (Choose three.)
A. Dynamic filtering creates a query statement.
B. Dynamic filtering has an option to save query.
C. Dynamic filtering can select any log field to filter.
D. Dynamic filtering permanently removes other log entries.
E. Dynamic filtering redraws the log when you select a variable link.
Answer: ABE

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Exam Code: JN0-532
Exam Name: Juniper (FWV,Specialist (JNCIS -FWV))
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Total Q&A: 146 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which ScreenOS CLI command is necessary for configuring IGMP on interface ethernet0/1?
A.set igmp interface ethernet0/1
B.set multicast interface ethernet0/1
C.set interface ethernet0/1 igmp router
D.set igmp interface ethernet0/1 enable
Answer: C

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NO.2 Review the exhibit.
You've been asked to build a route-based hub and spoke network, with policy control for traffic travelling
from spoke to spoke. Which two of the following configuration options will meet this requirement?
(Choose two.)
A.Place the spoke tunnel interfaces in the trust zone and create policies on the spokes.
B.Place the spoke tunnel interfaces in the untrust zone and create policies on the spokes.
C.Create a single tunnel interface in the trust zone at the hub and enable intra-zone blocking.
D.Create separate tunnel interfaces at the hub and place them in different zones, then create policies at
the hub.
Answer: BD

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NO.3 During main mode negations a failure has occurred while using IKE certificates.
Which message pair would you review to troubleshoot this failure?
A.messages 1 & 2
B.messages 2 & 3
C.messages 3 & 4
D.messages 5 & 6
Answer: D

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the source IP address of the multicast traffic?
A.236.1.1.1
B.10.10.10.1
C.20.20.20.10
D.20.20.20.200
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have entered the command set ffilter src-ip 1.1.7.250 dst-ip 10.1.10.5 ip-prot 6
What will be the resulting output in the debug for which this was created?
A.If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 or a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 or has TCP as its protocol then it will be
captured
B.If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 or a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 or has UDP as its protocol then it will be
captured
C.If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 and a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 and has TCP as its protocol then it will
be captured
D.If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 and a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 and has UDP as its protocol then it will
be captured
Answer: C

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NO.6 Review the exhibit.
Which two of the following elements must be configured on the ScreenOS device in order to support
PIM-SM? (Choose two)
A.A multicast control policy
B.A bootstrap router process
C.A unicast routing protocol
D.A static RP
Answer: AC

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the firewall administrator at the Storefront is complaining that when the communication to
the DataCenter1 fails, the preexisting transfers and applications are dropped when the traffic is switched
to DataCenter2.
Which statement explains this behavior?
A.SYN checking is enabled in the tunnel.
B.The weight value for the DataCenter2 is too high.
C.VPN monitor is misconfigured in the DataCenter2.
D.Phase 1 and Phase 2 negotiations to DataCenter2 did not occur on time.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which CLI command identifies the multicast sources visible to your ScreenOS device?
A.get route pim
B.get igmp source all
C.exec pim interface all query
D.get vrouter trust-vr protocol pim
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Review the exhibit. Track-ip has failed on the device, but the device did not fail over to the second unit in
the cluster:
Why has failover not occurred?
A.The physical interfaces have not failed.
B.The track-ip interval is not sufficient to cause failover.
C.The track-ip address weight is not sufficient to cause failover.
D.The track-ip address threshold is not sufficient to cause failover.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which three OSPF parameters are interface parameters? (Choose three.)
A.cost
B.priority
C.neighbor list
D.summarization
E.advertise default route
Answer: ABC

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which two can be determined about the VPN? (Choose two.)
A.NAT-traversal is enabled.
B.The rekey interval is 8 hours.
C.This device initiated the Phase 1 negotiations.
D.The certificate used in this exchange is set to never expire.
Answer: BC

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the address of the multicast receiver?
A.234.9.8.42
B.192.168.10.2
C.192.168.20.10
D.192.168.20.200
Answer: D

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NO.13 To which three ScreenOS components can a policy-based routing policy be bound? (Choose three.)
A.zone
B.policy
C.interface
D.virtual router
E.virtual system
Answer: ACD

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NO.14 Which three statements are true regarding IKE Phase 1? (Choose three.)
A.Placing the SA proposal list in message 1 is an option.
B.The digital certificate is used to decrypt the session key.
C.The DH key exchange is used to validate the session key.
D.The DH key exchange and digital certificates are both optional.
E.The proxy-id is used to determine which SA is referenced for the VPN.
Answer: ABC

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NO.15 You have created a virtual router called VSYSA-vr and made it shareable. You then create the VSYS
using the WebUI, telling it to use an existing VR and selecting the VR called VSYSA-vr.
What is the status of the virtual router after you create the VSYS?
A.The router will be the default router but will no longer be shared.
B.The router will be the default router and will still have a shareable status.
C.The system will not let you use a shared virtual router when you create a new VSYS. The initial virtual
router must be private.
D.The system will not create a private vr for the VSYS but will assign the untrust-vr as the default router.
The shared Virtual router will not be the default router.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which two item pairs are exchanged during Phase 2 negotiations? (Choose two.)
A.proxy-id, SA proposal list
B.IKE cookie, SA proposal list
C.hash [ID + Key], DH key exchange
D.SA proposal list, optional DH key exchange
Answer: AD

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NO.17 Which command is used to verify that IGMP is running correctly?
A.get route igmp
B.get igmp query
C.set igmp query interface e0/1
D.exec igmp interface e0/1 query
Answer: D

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NO.18 What must be enabled to protect Phase 2 key exchanges?
A.Phase 1 PFS
B.Phase 2 SHA
C.Phase 2 3-DES
D.Phase 2 DH key exchange tiations? (Choose two.)
A.proxy-id, SA proposal list
B.IKE cookie, SA proposal list
C.hash [ID + Key], DH key exchange
D.SA proposal list, optional DH key exchange
Answer: D

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NO.19 What must be configured differently for a route-based VPN and a policy-based VPN?
A.proxy-id
B.proposals
C.remote gateway type
D.binding the tunnel interface
Answer: D

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NO.20 You have configured the following on your device.
set address trust MyPC 10.1.1.5/32
set address untrust CorpNet 10.10.0.0/16
set policy from trust to untrust MyPC CorpNet any permit
set int tunnel.1 zone untrust
set int tunnel.1 ip unnumbered int bgroup1
set ike gateway GW address 1.1.1.1 outgoing-interface e0/1 preshare Secret sec-level standard
set vpn VPN gateway GW sec-level standard
The tunnel interface is down, so the VPN cannot function properly. What is the problem?
A.The policy needs to have the action tunnel.
B.The VPN needs to be bound to the tunnel interface.
C.The tunnel interface needs to be placed in the trust zone.
D.The tunnel interface needs to be associated with the interface in the untrust zone.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which security or functional zone name has special significance to the Junos OS?
A. self
B. trust
C. untrust
D. junos-global
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which UTM feature requires a license to function?
A. integrated Web filtering
B. local Web filtering
C. redirect Web filtering
D. content filtering
Answer: A

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NO.3 A network administrator has configured source NAT, translating to an address that is on a locally
connected subnet. The administrator sees the translation working, but traffic does not appear to come
back.What is causing the problem?
A. The host needs to open the telnet port.
B. The host needs a route for the translated address.
C. The administrator must use a proxy-arp policy for the translated address.
D. The administrator must use a security policy, which will allow communication between the zones.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three security concerns can be addressed by a tunnel mode IPsec VPN secured by AH.?
(Choose three.)
A. data integrity
B. data confidentiality
C. data authentication
D. outer IP header confidentiality
E. outer IP header authentication
Answer: ACE

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NO.5 Which two statements regarding external authentication servers for firewall user authentication are
true? (Choose two.)
A. Up to three external authentication server types can be used simultaneously.
B. Only one external authentication server type can be used simultaneously.
C. If the local password database is not configured in the authentication order, and the configured
authentication server is unreachable, authentication is bypassed.
D. If the local password database is not configured in the authentication order, and the configured
authentication server rejects the authentication request, authentication is rejected
Answer: BD

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about hierarchical architecture? (Choose two.)
A. You can assign a logical interface to multiple zones.
B. You cannot assign a logical interface to multiple zones.
C. You can assign a logical interface to multiple routing instances.
D. You cannot assign a logical interface to multiple routing instances.
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Which configuration keyword ensures that all in-progress sessions are re-evaluated upon committing a
security policy change?
A. policy-rematch
B. policy-evaluate
C. rematch-policy
D. evaluate-policy
Answer: A

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NO.8 You must configure a SCREEN option that would protect your router from a session table flood. Which
configuration meets this requirement?
A. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
icmp {
ip-sweep threshold 5000;
flood threshold 2000;
}
}
B. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
tcp {
syn-flood {
attack-threshold 2000;
destination-threshold 2000;
}
}
}
C. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
udp {
flood threshold 5000;
}
}
D. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
limit-session {
source-ip-based 1200;
destination-ip-based 1200;
}
}
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two statements in a source NAT configuration are true regarding addresses, rule-sets, or rules
that overlap? (Choose two.)
A. Addresses used for NAT pools should never overlap.
B. If more than one rule-set matches traffic, the rule-set with the most specific context takes precedence.
C. If traffic matches two rules within the same rule-set, both rules listed in the configuration are applied.
D. Dynamic source NAT rules take precedence over static source NAT rules.
Answer: AB

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NO.10 You want to allow your device to establish OSPF adjacencies with a neighboring device connected to
interface ge-0/0/3.0. Interface ge-0/0/3.0 is a member of the HR zone.Under which configuration
hierarchy must you permit OSPF traffic?
A. [edit security policies from-zone HR to-zone HR]
B. [edit security zones functional-zone management protocols]
C. [edit security zones protocol-zone HR host-inbound-traffic]
D. [edit security zones security-zone HR host-inbound-traffic protocols]
Answer: D

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NO.11 Regarding content filtering, what are two pattern lists that can be configured in the Junos OS? (Choose
two.)
A. protocol list
B. MIME
C. block list
D. extension
Answer: BD

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NO.12 Which three statements are true regarding IDP? (Choose three.)
A. IDP cannot be used in conjunction with other Junos security features such as SCREEN options, zones,
and security policy.
B. IDP inspects traffic up to the Application Layer.
C. IDP searches the data stream for specific attack patterns.
D. IDP inspects traffic up to the Presentation Layer.
E. IDP can drop packets, close sessions, prevent future sessions, and log attacks for review by network
administrators when an attack is detected.
Answer: BCE

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NO.13 Which two UTM features require a license to be activated? (Choose two.)
A. antispam
B. antivirus (full AV)
C. content filtering
D. Web-filtering redirect
Answer: AB

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NO.14 A user wants to establish an HTTP session to a server behind an SRX device but is being pointed to
Web page on the SRX device for additional authentication.Which type of user authentication is
configured?
A. pass-through with Web redirect
B. WebAuth with HTTP redirect
C. WebAuth
D. pass-through
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which zone is system-defined?
A. security
B. functional
C. junos-global
D. management
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which type of Web filtering by default builds a cache of server actions associated with each URL it has
checked?
A. Websense Redirect Web filtering
B. integrated Web filtering
C. local Web filtering
D. enhanced Web filtering
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which statement contains the correct parameters for a route-based IPsec VPN?
A. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}
policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
B. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}
policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
interface st0.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
C. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}
policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
bind-interface ge-0/0/1.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
D. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
bind-interface st0.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which command do you use to display the status of an antivirus database update?
A. show security utm anti-virus status
B. show security anti-virus database status
C. show security utm anti-virus database
D. show security utm anti-virus update
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which statement describes an ALG?
A. An ALG intercepts and analyzes all traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies to deny
the traffic.
B. An ALG intercepts and analyzes the specified traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies
to permit the traffic to pass.
C. An ALG intercepts and analyzes the specified traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies
to deny the traffic.
D. An ALG intercepts and analyzes all traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies to permit
the traffic to pass.
Answer:

NO.20 Which two statements regarding symmetric key encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same key is used for encryption and decryption.
B. It is commonly used to create digital certificate signatures.
C. It uses two keys: one for encryption and a different key for decryption.
D. An attacker can decrypt data if the attacker captures the key used for encryption.
Answer: AD

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2013年11月29日星期五

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NO.1 The network technician is troubleshooting a network issue by implementing a new security device. After
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A. Verify full system functionality.
B. Identify the main problem and question the user.
C. Document their findings, actions, and outcomes.
D. Escalate the issue to upper management.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following would be used to test out the security of a specific network by allowing it to
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A. Honeynet
B. Honeypot
C. Vulnerability scanner
D. Network based IDS
Answer: A

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NO.3 The protocols that use a three way handshake to transfer information can be found within which layer of
the OSI model?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
Answer: C

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NO.4 A network technician blocks access to ports 25, 110, and 143 on the firewall. Which of the following
application services will be blocked due to this?
A. Email sending and receiving
B. Domain Name Service
C. FTP access to external servers
D. Remote desktop access
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following layers of the OSI model maps to the Network Interface layer of the TCP stack?
(Select TWO).
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Data Link
D. Network
E. Transport
Answer: AC

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NO.6 Which of the following can be configured to restrict specific ports and IP addresses from accessing the
internal network? (Select TWO).
A. Layer 2 switch
B. MAC address filtering
C. ACLs
D. IIS server
E. Port scanner
F. Firewall
Answer: CF

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NO.7 A network technician is attempting to map a FQDN to an internal server at the address of 10.0.0.15
without NAT/PAT. Which of the following is the reason this will ultimately not work?
A. This is a private address which cannot be seen by external users.
B. The address does not have the appropriate subnet mask assigned.
C. This is a public address which can only be seen by internal users.
D. This is a private address which can only be seen by external users.
Answer: A

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NO.8 hen the use of a smart card, pin number, and pass phrase is required to login to a system, which of the
following types of authentication is being used?
A. Single sign on
B. PKI
C. Two factor authentication
D. Multi-factor authentication
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following is a reason to use dynamic DNS?
A. The host IP address is not listed in the firewall.
B. The host IP address is assigned by DHCP.
C. Static routes cannot be used on the host network.
D. A third-party certificate is being used.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A network technician is troubleshooting a problem and has just established a plan of action to resolve
the problem. Which of the following is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting methodology?
A. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.
B. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary.
C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
D. Establish a theory of probable cause (e.g. question the obvious).
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following protocols is commonly used for VoIP technology?
A. Telnet
B. SMTP
C. SIP
D. SNMP
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following ports is the default telnet port?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following is the broadcast address for a network defined as 192.168.0.0/24?
A. 192.168.0.255
B. 192.168.0.1
C. 192.168.0.0
D. 192.168.0.253
Answer: A

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NO.14 A network technician, working with a large business of 500 employees, decides to configure a server
to handle IP addressing. Which of the following would BEST allow for this setup?
A. Address routing protocol
B. Port mirroring
C. Static addresses
D. DHCP addresses
Answer: D

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NO.15 A company is about to install a second network connection with a new ISP. Which of the following
routing protocols is the BEST choice?
A. IS-IS
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. RIP
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following authentication solutions also provides AAA and uses TCP.?
A. TACACS+
B. Kerberos
C. RADIUS
D. RAS
Answer: A

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NO.17 A user is unable to access the company website on a laptop. A network technician verifies that the user
can access other Internet pages. According to network troubleshooting methodology, which of the
following steps should be taken NEXT?
A. Remotely connect to the user's laptop and review the network configuration settings.
B. Ping the web server from inside the network to ensure it is still up and running.
C. Check to make sure the company's website is accessible from the Internet.
D. Ensure the Ethernet cable is securely plugged into the user's laptop.
Answer: C

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NO.18 A bridge handles frames at which of the following layers of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Data Link
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following ports would have to be allowed through a firewall to allow SNMP traffic to pass
on its default port? (Select TWO).
A. 22
B. 23
C. 143
D. 161
E. 162
F. 8080
Answer: DE

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NO.20 Which of the following metrics indentifies the number of connections that is between two devices?
A. Hop count
B. MTU
C. Latency
D. Bandwidth
Answer: A

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Exam 220-702 questions and answers

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Exam Code: 220-702
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 422 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Offline files and folders are available on which versions of Windows? (Select TWO).
A. Windows 7 Ultimate
B. Windows 7 Home Premium
C. Windows XP Home
D. Windows Vista Home Premium 64-bit
E. Windows XP Professional
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 A user is working in a small office home office (SOHO), running Windows XP, and cannot connect to
the Internet. The office uses a router that is setup as a DHCP server. The technician types IPCONFIG in
the command prompt, the following appears:
IP address 0.0.0.0
Gateway 0.0.0.0
Subnet Mask 0.0.0.0
DNS 0.0.0.0
Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
A. Network adapter drivers
B. Router settings
C. Network cable
D. Firewall
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following characteristics of Windows Gadgets is accurate?
A. Windows Gadgets are available in all versions of Windows since XP.
B. Windows Gadgets are part of the Sidebar in Windows Vista and Windows 7.
C. Windows Gadgets were introduced in Windows 7.
D. Windows Gadgets are part of the Sidebar in Windows Vista.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A technician plugs a USB device into the computer. The system tray displays a message that reports
the device is installed, but may not work properly. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the
message?
A. The device needs a firmware update.
B. The device needs an updated driver installed.
C. The plugged in device is too slow for the USB port speed.
D. The device is incompatible with the installed version of Windows.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A technician is replacing the motherboard on a laptop. Which of the following is the MOST important
step during the disassembly process?
A. Place all of the screws in a container with other parts.
B. Keep the power supply plugged in to ground the system.
C. Organize the screws and document the locations.
D. Use a magnetic tipped screwdriver to remove the screws.
Answer: C

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NO.6 After powering on a workstation, an intrusion alert is displayed indicating that the case has been opened.
How would a technician reset the alert?
A. Change the setting in the registry
B. Change the setting in the BIOS
C. Change the setting in the DOS startup files
D. Change the setting in the Control Panel
Answer: B

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NO.7 The user cannot access some Internet websites, but can connect to resources inside the local network.
The technician successfully uses the ping command to test the user s connectivity. Which of the following
commands can the technician run NEXT to troubleshoot the issue?
A. net /?
B. ipconfig /flushdns
C. netstat -r
D. nbtstat -R
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following are encrypted protocols? (Select TWO).
A. TELNET
B. SSH
C. POP3
D. FTP
E. HTTPS
Answer: B,E

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NO.9 A technician wants to setup hardware RAID 5 for a Windows 7 computer to prevent data loss. In which
of the following locations would the technician MOST likely change the setting?
A. Disk Manager
B. Device Manager
C. Windows Boot DVD
D. The BIOS
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following network modifications should be implemented to extend the wireless network
range and allow out-of-range users to share the Internet connection?
A. Create a new VLAN for the out-of-range users.
B. Add a wireless access point for the out-of-range users.
C. Upgrade the out-of-range users
SSID searching software.
D. Enable network sharing on the users
computers that are within range.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer requires a shock resistant mass storage device in their PC. Which of the following drives
should the technician install?
A. Hard disk
B. Solid state
C. Floppy
D. Tape
Answer: B

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NO.12 A customer has a wireless router installed in their home office. The customer is having issues with
signal strength at the opposite end of the house. Which of the following is the BEST option to increase the
signal strength?
A. Install a high gain antennafocused towards the office wall
B. Run CAT5e cable to all of the roomsthat have poor signal strength
C. Install a wireless repeater at the far end of the house
D. Install a second wired router in the far end of the house
Answer: C

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NO.13 A technician needs to change the process priority of a background program. Which of the following tools
is BEST for performing this function.?
A. MSCONFIG
B. Computer Management
C. Task Scheduler
D. Task Manager
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following will fix a laptop with dark irregular lines that run the width of the display in all
video modes?
A. Perform a System Restore
B. Replace the video capture card
C. Change the resolution to 800 x 600
D. Replace the LCD
Answer: D

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NO.15 Two users share the same Windows 7 computer. The first user creates a document intended to be
used by both users, and then logs off. The second user logs on and types the name of the document in
the Start menu, but the document is not found. Which of the following is the problem?
A. The document is set to hidden.
B. The document is locked.
C. The document was saved as a system document.
D. The document is owned by the first user.
Answer: D

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NO.16 A computer running Windows 7 will not boot up. A user is receiving an ® I nva li d boo t d i s
error.
Which of the following is the cause of this error?
A. The BOOT.INI file is not found.
B. The Windows registry is corrupt.
C. There is a CD-ROM in the drive.
D. The floppy drive is disconnected.
Answer: C

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NO.17 A user powers up their desktop PC, and instead of booting up normally, the user is taken into the BIOS
setup.
Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?
A. The MBR is corrupt
B. NTLDR cannot be found by the system
C. A faulty CMOS battery
D. The BIOS requires a firmware update
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following locations would a technician use to add a Windows 7 computer to a domain?
A. System Properties
B. Windows Defender
C. Network and Sharing Center
D. Device Manager
Answer: A

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NO.19 A home user wants to setup a wireless network. Which of the following would be the MOST important
consideration?
A. Operating system type of the connected PCs
B. Location of the wireless router
C. Number of PCs that will access the network
D. Number of available Ethernet ports on the router
Answer: B

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NO.20 A user is connecting to the Internet using a DSL modem. The user installs a new wireless router and is
unable to connect remotely to their computer, using Remote Desktop. The user had no issues connecting
remotely before the wireless router was installed.
Which of the following is the problem?
A. Wireless router drivers are needed.
B. Port forwarding is not setup.
C. The wireless router is defective.
D. VPN is not setup correctly.
Answer: B

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