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Exam Code: I10-001
Exam Name: XML Master (XML Master Basic V2)
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Total Q&A: 129 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Select which statement correctly describes the XML document below.
[XML Documents]
<!DOCTYPE ElementA [
<!ELEMENT ElementA EMPTY>
<!ATTLIST ElementA Attribute (ABC|DEF|GHI) #IMPLIED>
]>
<ElementA Attribute ="
A
B
C"/>
A. This is not a well-formed document, because the attribute value cannot have a line feed in it.
B. This is not a valid XML document, because an attribute cannot be designated for an element that is
designated as EMPTY.
C. This is not a valid XML document, because the attribute value is not a value listed in the attribute list
declaration.
D. This is a valid XML document.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Select which of the following correctly describes an XML Schema definition when the MarketPrice
element must be a positive integer. Assume the Schema namespace prefix is "xs".
A. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:negativeInteger"/>
B. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:positiveInteger"/>
C. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:duration"/>
D. <xs:element name="MarketPrice" type="xs:hexBinary"/>
Answer: B

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NO.3 Select which of the following correctly describes a document type declaration when designating an
external DTD file.
A. <!ENTITY productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
B. <!DOCTYPE productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
C. <!DOCTYPE root [
<!ELEMENT productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
]>
D. <!DTD productlist SYSTEM "product.dtd">
Answer: B

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NO.4 Select which of the following is coded using XML syntax:
A. XHTML documents
B. SOAP headers
C. XSLT Stylesheets
D. DOM
Answer: ABC

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NO.5 Select which of the following is correct with respect to the attribute list declaration for setting
"notebook" as the default value in the CDATA "type" attribute included in the "computer" element.
A. <!ATTLIST type CDATA "notebook">
B. <!ATTLIST computer type CDATA notebook>
C. <!ATTLIST computer type CDATA "notebook">
D. <!ATTLIST computer type="notebook" CDATA>
Answer: C

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NO.6 Select which of the following correctly describes the DTD attribute list declaration when the "date"
attribute and the "reception" attribute are included in the "Customer_Visit" element.
A. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit (date,reception) CDATA #IMPLIED>
B. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit (date|reception) CDATA #IMPLIED>
C. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit date && reception CDATA #IMPLIED>
D. <!ATTLIST Customer_Visit date CDATA #IMPLIED reception CDATA #IMPLIED>
Answer: D

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NO.7 Press the Exhibit button to view "XML Schema Document". Which of the following is a valid XML
document with respect to "XML Schema Document".
[XML Schema Document]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xs:element name="Output_file" type="outputType" />
<xs:complexType name="outputType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref="file" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="20" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="file" type="fileType" />
<xs:complexType name="fileType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref="file_Name" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="file_Name" type="xs:string" />
</xs:schema>
A. < xml version="1.0"?>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
B. < xml version="1.0"?>
<Output_file>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
</Output_file>
C. < xml version="1.0"?>
<Output_file>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
<file_Name>map2.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
</Output_file>
D. < xml version="1.0"?>
<Output_file>
<file>
<file_Name>map1.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
<file>
<file_Name>map2.bmp</file_Name>
</file>
</Output_file>
Answer: ABD

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NO.8 Select which of the following is the default character encoding for an XML document in which the XML
declaration does not designate an encoding attribute.
A. UNICODE
B. Shift_JIS
C. UTF-8 or UTF-16
D. EUC-JP
Answer: C

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NO.9 Press the Exhibit button to view "XML Schema Document". Select which of the following correctly
describes a valid XML document with respect to "XML Schema Document".
[XML Schema Document]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xs:element name="ContactInformation" type="ContactType" />
<xs:complexType name="ContactType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element name="Name" type="xs:string" maxOccurs="unbounded"/>
<xs:element name="eMail" type="xs:string" maxOccurs="unbounded"/>
</xs:sequence>
<xs:attribute name="Date" type="xs:date" use="optional" />
</xs:complexType>
</xs:schema>
A. <ContactInformation Date="2004-07-31">
<Name>Taro Yamada</Name>
<eMail>Yamada@ABC.co.jp</eMail>
</ContactInformation>
B. <ContactInformation>
<Name/>
<eMail/>
</ContactInformation>
C. <ContactInformation Date="July 31, 2004">
<Name>Taro Yamada</Name>
<eMail>Yamada@ABC.co.jp</eMail>
</ContactInformation>
D. <ContactInformation/>
Answer: AB

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NO.10 Select which of the following is an absolute requirement for a well-formed XML document.
A. an XML declaration
B. a Schema definition
C. a DOCTYPE declaration
D. an element
Answer: D

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NO.11 Select which answers are correct with respect to the relationship between "x", as expressed in the
DTD element type declaration below, and its child element. Assume child elements "a" "b" "c" are all
empty elements, expressed as like <a/>.
[DTD]
<!ELEMENT x (a, (b|c)*)>
A. <x>
<a/>
<b/>
<c/>
</x>
B. <x>
<a/>
</x>
C. <x>
<a/>
<c/>
<c/>
<b/>
</x>
D. <x>
<b/>
<c/>
<a/>
</x>
Answer: ABC

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NO.12 Press the Exhibit button to view "XML Document". Select which of the following correctly describes the
results of applying "XSLT Stylesheet" to "XML Document". Assume that the input XML document and
transformation results ignore meaningless whitespace.
[XML Documents]
<product_list>
<LIST>Product_List</LIST>
<product name="pen">
<name lang="ja">Pen</name>
</product>
<product name="paper">
<name lang="ja">Paper</name>
</product>
</product_list>
[XSLT Stylesheet]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="1.0">
<xsl:template match="/">
<LIST>
<xsl:for-each select="/product_list/product">
<xsl:value-of select="name"/>
</xsl:for-each>
</LIST>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
A. A file that does not contain any content will be output, because the XML document LIST element does
not contain a name attribute.
B. The following XML document will be output.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<LIST>PenPaper</LIST>
C. The following XML document will be output.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<LIST>
<name lang="jp">Pen</name>
<name lang="jp">Paper</name>
</LIST>
D. The following XML document will be output.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<LIST>
<name lang="jp">Pen</name>
<name lang="jp">Paper</name>
PenPaper
</LIST>
Answer: B

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NO.13 Select which of the following correctly describes an element type declaration that includes either the
"home" element or the "mobile" element as a child element of the "telephone_number" element.
A. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home,mobile)>
B. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home?mobile)>
C. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home)>
<!ELEMENT telephone_number (mobile)>
D. <!ELEMENT telephone_number (home|mobile)>
Answer: D

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NO.14 Choose the statement about a problem with DTDs that is incorrect.
A. The way statements are made in a DTD differs from how the same statements are made in XML. As
a result, different algorithms must be made available for the XML processor to interpret XML documents,
which is inefficient.
B. Any single DTD can only be used to validate a single XML document.
C. In a DTD, it is not possible to specify any explicit numerical data type.
D. DTDs fail to comply with the rules of namespaces.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Select which statement is correct with regards to creating an XML document based on the DTD
element type declaration below.
[element type declaration]
<!ELEMENT computer (notebook|server)*>
<!ELEMENT notebook (mouse*)>
<!ELEMENT mouse (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT server (#PCDATA)>
A. Both the "notebook" element and the "server" element can be written as a child element of the
computer element.
B. As a child element of the "computer" element, the "server" element can be written before the
"notebook" element.
C. When writing the "notebook" element, "mouse" must be written as a child element.
D. Only one "mouse" element can be written as a child element of the "notebook" element.
Answer: AB

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NO.16 Select which DTD element type declaration correctly defines the "XML Documents" structure below.
[XML Documents]
<Documents>
<Product_Name>black pen</Product_Name>
+
<Product_Name> red pencil </Product_Name>
=
<Price>100</Price>
yen.
</Documents>
A. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name|Price)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
B. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name|Price|#PCDATA)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
C. <!ELEMENT Documents (Product_Name*|Price)>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
D. <!ELEMENT Documents (#PCDATA|Product_Name|Price)*>
<!ELEMENT Product_Name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT Price (#PCDATA)>
Answer: D

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NO.17 Select which of the following correctly describes the XML namespace to which the -->(1) "product"
element in the "XML Document" below belongs.
[XML Documents]
< xml version="1.0"?>
<products xmlns:A="urn:sample:A"
xmlns:B="urn:sample:B">
<A:product>
<B:product>
<product/> -->(1)
</B:product>
</A:product>
</products>
A. urn:sample:A
B. urn:sample:B
C. urn:sample:A and urn:sample:B
D. None
Answer: D

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NO.18 Select which of the following correctly describes (1) and (2) in the XML Schema document below when
the content of the "Flag" element must be an integer of 0 or 1.
< xml version="1.0"?>
<xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">
<xs:element name="Flag" type="flagData"/>
<xs:simpleType name="flagData">
<xs:restriction base="xs:integer">
<(1) value="0"/>
<(2) value="1"/>
</xs:restriction>
</xs:simpleType>
</xs:schema>
A. (1) xs:minInclusive (2) xs:maxInclusive
B. (1) xs:enumeration (2) xs:enumeration
C. (1) xs:minOccurs (2) xs:maxOccurs
D. (1) xs:minExclusive (2) xs:maxExclusive
Answer: AB

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NO.19 Select which of the following correctly describes a namespace to which the "price" element in the XML
document below belongs.
<message xmlns="urn:sample:order"
xmlns:product="urn:sample:product">
<product:list xmlns="urn:sample:list">
<name>XML study guide</name>
<price>536</price>
</product:list>
<order>
<customerID>J058974</customerID>
<number>1</number>
</order>
</message>
A. urn:sample:order
B. urn:sample:product
C. urn:sample:list
D. Does not belong to any namespace.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Choose the statement about HTML or XML that is incorrect.
A. In HTML, the types and meanings of tags are predefined.
B. In XML, a tag can be given any name as long as the name obeys XML naming conventions and is
well-formed.
C. In XML, elements can be given any number of attributes as long as the attributes obey XML naming
conventions and are well-formed.
D. XML protocols are linguistic standards used to control views on a Web browser.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: VCP-510
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VSphere 5)
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Total Q&A: 310 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.3 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.7 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.8 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.9 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.15 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.16 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.17 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.19 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.20 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 In a large organization, a user has 10 VMs deployed in vCloud Director, backed by a
Pay-As-You-
Go allocation model. The user needs to determine the charges being incurred for resource usage.
Which report type does the user need?
A. Showback Report
B. Usage Report
C. Cost Comparison Report
D. Cost Report
Answer: D

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NO.2 As a System Administrator you can disable an Organization vDC. Disabling will have which of
the
following effects? (Choose two)
A. vApps in the Org vDC that are not running cannot be powered on.
B. All vApps in the Org vDC will be shutdown.
C. Users will not be able to create or start additional vApps in that Org vDC.
D. The running vApps in the Org vDC will have their storage lease reset.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 An administrator attempts to delete the network named Internet but receives an error.
What is a possible reason for the error?
A. The network named Internet is backed by a port group on a vSphere Standard Switch.
B. The vShield Edge appliance on the external network is powered off.
C. The administrator needs to be an Organization Administrator.
D. The network is still in use by an Organization.
Answer: D

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NO.4 On which two vSphere elements can traffic shaping be configured? (Choose two.)
A. On a vSphere Distributed Switch dvPort for inbound and/or outbound traffic
B. On a vSphere Distributed Switch for inbound and/or outbound traffic
C. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound traffic
D. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound and outbound traffic
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which two resources must be in place prior to creating a new Provider vDC? (Choose two.)
A. vCloud External Network
B. vCenter Datastore
C. vCenter Resource Pool
D. vShield Protection Group
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Which three features are only available when using a vSphere Distributed Switch? (Choose
three.)
A. Port Mirroring
B. PVLAN tagging
C. Egress Traffic Shaping
D. Ingress Traffic Shaping
E. 802.1q VLAN Tagging
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 Which two components are required for a vCloud infrastructure installation? (Choose two.)
A. AMQP Broker
B. vCloud Connector
C. vShield Manager
D. Oracle/MS SQL database
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 An administrator would like to have vCenter take action any time a virtual machine is using
over
90% of its available resources for five minutes or longer.
Which three actions can be taken by vCenter Server in response to the trigger without running a
script? (Choose three.)
A. Power on a VM
B. Reboot Guest on VM
C. Increase Virtual Machine Memory
D. Migrate a VM
E. Increase Virtual Machine CPU Shares
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.1 Which three are supported command types for the MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
three.)
A. Add
B. Copy
C. Query
D. Modify
E. Compare
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about Subflow and SpawnWorkflow activities? (Choose two.)
A. BothSubflows and SpawnWorkflows can be nested.
B. Subflows can be nested, but SpawnWorkflows can not.
C. Both execution modes are supported by both activities.
D. SpawnWorkflow is ASYNCHR and Subflow is SYNCHR.
E. Subflow is ASYNCHR and SpawnWorkflow is SYNCHR.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 The following sample section of a rulebase will result in the displaying of which alerts on the UI?
A. Warning Only
B. Information Only
C. Severe Error Only
D. No alerts will be presented
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following parameters are required to retrieve a deleted record using a web service query?
A. RECORD_ID and ACTIVE
B. RECORD_STATE and ACTIVE
C. RECORD_VERSION and ACTIVE
D. RECORD_ID and RECORD_STATE
E. No parameters settings are required
F. RECORD_VERSION and RECORD_ID
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which TIBCO CIM utility is used to apply a hot fix?
A. tibcoUtil
B. hotfixUtil
C. migrateUtil
D. customUtil
E. tibcoCIMUtil
Answer: A

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NO.6 A string type attribute that is set to 0 length will default to what actual length?
A. 32 characters
B. 512 characters
C. 256 characters
D. 1000 characters
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two values can be set for a user via the User Accounts Administration page? (Choose two.)
A. Date Format
B. Default Repository
C. Activate Delegation
D. Activate Auto-Approval
E. Default Catalog Format
F. Activate Out-Of-Office Notification
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Which three statements are true about context variables for a rulebase? (Choose three.)
A. The SESSION object requires explicit declaration in therulebase.
B. Previous confirmed and unconfirmed version records can be accessed.
C. Attribute access can be restricted to certain roles using context variables.
D. RECORD_ACTION is a special variable and can be directly used for operation.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 What are six types of command qualifiers supported by MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
six.)
A. Add
B. Modify
C. Delete
D. MetaData
E. ValidValues
F. ValidValuesInit
G. Validate/Process
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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NO.10 Which three statements are true about the catalogs when used for extracting the data from a repository?
(Choose three.)
A. You can choose which attributes are to be extracted.
B. You can choose which record status should be included.
C. You can choose subset rules defined on a different master catalog.
D. You can choose anyrulebase if there are any transformation rules to be applied.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 Which three ProgrammingOperators are supported while defining new conditions and actions for
Business Process Rules? (Choose three.)
A. equals
B. lessThan
C. notEqualTo
D. greaterThanEqual
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.12 Which two configurable settings are related to workflow in TIBCO CIM Configurator? (Choose two.)
A. Workflow Cache Size
B. Workflow Timeout Value
C. Workflow Restart Attempts
D. Workflow Manager Directory
E. Workflow File Extension Default
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 Which three are valid topic names with TIBCO CIM? (Choose three.)
A. T_ECM_CORE_ADMIN
B. T_ECM_CORE_RULE_CACHE
C. T_ECM_CORE_OBJECT_CACHE
D. T_ECM_CORE_REPOSITORY_CACHE
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.14 Which of the following statements is incorrect when using a database table as a CIM data source?
A. Any new records added to the table are immediately available to CIM
B. The table or view must reside in the same database instance that CIM is using
C. If the data source contains any attributes of typedate, all such attributes must have the same date
format
D. It is not possible to provide CIM specific column names for the table when defining the data source
properties
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which activity must be used to send an e-mail message?
A. Send
B. HandleMessaging
C. SendProtocolMessage
D. ProcessServiceMessage
Answer: A

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NO.16 What can be used to retrieve all records that match a value across all repositories?
A. Text Search
B. Event Search
C. Subset Rules
D. Record Search
Answer: A

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NO.17 To enable text search continuous indexing, the Text Indexing Enabled property is set to which option?
A. Online
B. Offline
C. Discrete
D. Continuous
E. User Enabled
Answer: B

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NO.18 The workflow activities that support parallel processing can be tuned for performance. This can be
achieved by configuring a parameter for the activity RecordPerAsyncCall. What is the default value for
this parameter?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.19 You delete the log files in the MQ_COMMON_DIR/Work directory. What is affected?
A. Elink log
B. Event log
C. Record History
D. Repository History
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which two can an input map use to assign an attribute a value? (Choose two.)
A. hard-coded value
B. a concatenation of two or moredatasource columns
C. an expression based on the value of a child record attribute
D. a user-supplied value provided during execution of the import event
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 An EMS server and client are receiving heartbeats. Given the following EMS server settings:
-client_timeout_server_connection = 20 seconds -server_timeout_client_connection = 10 seconds
What are two possible outcomes? (Choose two.)
A. If EMS server does not receive heartbeats from a client for a period exceeding 10 seconds, the EMS
server will close the connection.
B. If EMS server does not receive heartbeats from a client for a period exceeding 20 seconds, the EMS
server will close the connection.
C. If a client does not receive heartbeats from EMS server for a period exceeding 10 seconds, the client
will close the connection.
D. If a client does not receive heartbeats from EMS server for a period exceeding 20 seconds, the client
will close the connection.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Which command displays message count delivered to a queue receiver?
A. Show consumers
B. Show receivers
C. Show connections
D. Show users
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about routing queue messages? (Choose two.)
A. Routed queue messages can travel to adjacent servers without reaching the home queue.
B. Each server in the route path must have its queue defined as global.
C. The concept of zones and hops does not apply to queue messages.
D. Queue messages can travel multiple hops.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Which two actions are most likely to improve EMS server performance.? (Choose two.)
A. Adding an additional CPU to the server running EMS
B. Improving physical disk performance
C. Switching from a file-based store to a database store
D. Increasing network I/O capacity on the server
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about selector functions? (Choose two.)
A. A selector's conditional expression can refer to values of the message body.
B. They are available for use in the bridging functions, helping to reduce unnecessary network traffic.
C. They are useful when used in conjunction with topic browser functions.
D. They are available to control the flow of messages along a route.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which two conditions can cause messages in a queue to be moved to the undelivered queue? (Choose
two.)
A. The number of delivery attempts has reached the limit defined for the queue.
B. The number of pending messages has reached the limit defined for the queue.
C. The length of time the message has been retained in the queue has exceeded the limit defined for the
queue.
D. The overflow policy for the queue has been set to discard the oldest messages.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which command creates a connection factory of type queue?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about synchronous and asynchronous message consumption?
(Choose two.)
A. For synchronous consumption, the message consumer explicitly invokes a receive call on the topic or
queue.
B. The consumer can receive messages synchronously by registering a synchronous message listener to
receive the messages.
C. When asynchronously receiving messages, the consumer remains blocked until a message arrives.
D. For asynchronous consumption, a message listener can be implemented that serves as an
asynchronous event handler for messages.
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 When a single message consumer is connected with an EMS server, which action can be used to
improve message consumption?
A. Enabling automatic acknowledge of all messages by the session
B. Changing delivery mode from PERSISTENT to NON_PERSISTENT
C. Increasing the prefetch value
D. Creating another instance of EMS server
Answer: C

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NO.10 How does a backup fault-tolerant server detect a failure of the primary fault-tolerant server?
A. TCP heartbeats sent from the primary server
B. TCP heartbeats sent from the backup server
C. Multicast heartbeats sent from the primary server
D. Multicast heartbeats sent from the backup server
Answer: A

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NO.11 A dynamic queue named q1 has been created by an EMS client.
What will be the result of executing the following command: create queue q1?
A. The command will fail saying the queue already exists.
B. The command will fail if queue has connected receivers.
C. The command will succeed and queue will be promoted to static.
D. The command will succeed and dynamic queue will be renamed.
Answer: C

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NO.12 The company naming standard states that all queue names must start with the letter C.
How can the administrator of the EMS server enforce this naming standard for dynamic queues?
A. By disabling creation of dynamic destinations in the tibemsd.conf file
B. By changing create-destination permission for users
C. By having c. > as the only entry with a wildcard in the queues.conf file
D. By setting a rule to add c. as a prefix to all dynamic queues
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two statements are true about the listen parameter? (Choose two.)
A. The listen parameter is set in the tibemsd.conf file.
B. Multiple listen parameters can be set in the TIBCO EMS configuration file.
C. TCP is the only protocol supported in the listen parameter.
D. The listen parameter is set in the transports, conf file.
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 Atopic sales, topic is bridged to two queues: FINANCE.Q and AUDIT.Q. Ten messages are sent on the
topic SALES.TOPIC. A consumer reads ten messages from FINANCE.Q.
How many messages are now in the AUDIT.Q?
A. zero
B. five
C. ten
D. twenty
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which three commands will update EMS configuration files when an exclusive commit command is
issued from EMS? (Choose three.)
A. set server client trace=enabled
B. set server password=password
C. set server authorization=enabled
D. set server track_message_ids=enabled
E. set server routing=enabled
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: OG0-9AB
Exam Name: The Open Group (TOGAF 8 - 9 Advanced Bridge)
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Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 According to TOGAF, which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted
subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?
A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which one of the following describes the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference
Library, Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference
Library, Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
Answer: D

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NO.3 In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?
A. An artifact will contain one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which of the following reasons best describes why the ADM numbering scheme for versioning output is
an example and not mandatory?
A. To enable use with the Architecture Content Framework
B. To permit adaptation as required
C. To show the evolution of deliverables
D. To support change management
Answer: B

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NO.5 If a technique is referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated in the
Document Categorization Model, then in which category should it be placed?
A. TOGAF Extension
B. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques
C. TOGAF Recommended
D. TOGAF Supporting
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-351
Exam Name: Symantec (Admin of Veritas Storage Foundation HA 5.0 for Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 253 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 A PostOnline trigger is being tested on a three-system cluster with systems named SystemA,
SystemB, and SystemC. The trigger works on SystemA, but it fails to run on SystemB and
SystemC. What is a possible reason for this?
A.The PostOnline trigger is missing from SystemB and SystemC.
B.The hatrigger script must be run on all systems to enable the PostOnline trigger.
C.The PostOnline attribute is set to False on SystemB and SystemC.
D.The Veritas Cluster Server engine had an error while replicating the trigger to SystemB and SystemC.
Correct:A

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NO.2 Which two attributes must be defined for a SQLServer2005 resource? (Choose two.)
A.UserAccount
B.Instance
C.DetailMonitor
D.LanmanResName
E.MountV
Correct:B D

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NO.3 Which two files are required in order to start the Veritas Cluster Server Simulator? (Choose
two.)
A.main.cf
B.main.cf.previous
C.main.cf.sim
D.types.cf
E.types.cf.previous
F.types.cf.sim
Correct:A D

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NO.4 A Web hosting company has an eight-node cluster running 60 Web servers. Their failover
objective is to distribute the load equally among all nodes. Each Web server has approximately
the same load on the servers. All servers are identical. Which FailOverPolicy accomplishes this
with the least amount of effort on the part of the administrator?
A.Load
B.Priority
C.RoundRobin
D.Average
Correct:C

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NO.5 What are two valid settings for FailOverPolicy? (Choose two.)
A.Priority
B.RoundRobin
C.Order
D.Failover
E.Capacity
Correct:A B

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NO.6 What is the correct configuration of Exchange to enable failover in a cluster?
A.Active/Passive with four systems and two Exchange instances
B.Active/Active with four systems and five Exchange instances
C.Active/Active with four systems each running multiple Exchange instances
D.Active/Passive with four systems and four Exchange instances
Correct:A

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NO.7 Which resource type attribute is modified to reduce the fault detection time?
A.MonitorTimeOut
B.MonitorInterval
C.FaultOnMonitorTimeouts
D.OnlineMonitorInterval
Correct:B

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NO.8 Which functionality is added to the Java console when accessing the Veritas Cluster Server
Simulator rather than a running cluster? (Choose two.)
A.power off/on a system
B.delete a system
C.fault a resource
D.fault a heartbeat link
E.power off/on a disk array
F.remove a heartbeat link
Correct:A C

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NO.9 Which service group attribute setting calls a user-defined script that checks for external
conditions before bringing the service group online?
A.PreOnlining
B.PreOnline
C.Priority
D.Probed
Correct:B

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NO.10 Refer to the exhibit. A new VMDg resource is manually added to an existing service group, but
the VMDg resource fails to probe and shows a red question mark on the Veritas Cluster Server
Java console. What is a possible reason for this condition?
A.The DiskGroupName attribute was typed incorrectly.
B.The ForceImport attribute was set to True.
C.The DGGuid attribute was left blank.
D.The VMDg resource was set to non-critical.
Correct:A

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NO.11 Given a three-node cluster running two instances of Exchange with an any-to-any
configuration, which FailOverPolicy prevents one instance of Exchange from attempting to fail
over to the node with Exchange running on it?
A.Round-robin
B.Priority
C.Load
D.Exclusive
Correct:C

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NO.12 A new file share service group is configured using the FileShare Configuration Wizard. What is
the default value for the ForceUnmount attribute for the MountV resource?
A.NONE
B.ALL
C.READ_ONLY
D.READ_WRITE
Correct:C

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NO.13 You are using the Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) Java console to connect to a VCS Simulator
session that is running within a production VCS cluster. The Java console is unable to connect to
the VCS Simulator session. What are two possible causes for the connection problem? (Choose
two.)
A.HAD for the production VCS cluster is not running.
B.The VCS Simulator is not running.
C.The port number is incorrect.
D.The hashadow process for the VCS cluster is hung.
E.The ClusterService group is offline.
Correct:B C

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NO.14 A cluster has three systems: S1, S2, and S3; and six service groups: SGa, SGb, SGc, SGd, SGe,
and SGf. The SGa, SGd, and SGf service groups are online on the S1 system. The SGc and SGe
service groups are online on the S2 system. The SGb service group is online on the S3 system.
Given the partial main.cf definition: Group SGb ( SystemList = { S1 = 0, S2 = 1, S3 = 1 }
AutoStartList = { S1, S2, S3 } FailOverPolicy = RoundRobin ) If the S3 system reboots, what
happens to SGb?
A.It goes to system S1.
B.It goes to system S2.
C.It goes to system S3.
D.It remains offline.
Correct:B

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NO.15 A resource has the ResourceOwner attribute set to Marc. The resource has faulted. Who can
clear the fault?
A.any Cluster Administrator
B.any Cluster Guest
C.a Windows domain user named Marc, with or without a Veritas Cluster Server account
D.a Veritas Cluster Server user named Marc, with Cluster Guest priveleges
Correct:A

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NO.16 During a test of a persistent resource, the Veritas Cluster Server engine log indicates that the
service group and the persistent resource enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster.
The resource enters the ONLINE state after the root cause of the fault is corrected. Which default
attribute setting allows the service group to attempt to start without manual intervention?
A.AutoStart
B.AutoClear
C.AutoRestart
D.AutoFailover
Correct:C

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NO.17 Given the following information: include "types.cf" cluster default_clus ( UserNames = { aaron
= alkdsjfaldjaldfaH, barbara = ieruhrkafhkafhake, carmen = urHkjREOHGkajhuel, dionne =
lasdjfasiLjirrljl, edward = asdlfjaielajfLKio, fung = EIwfjsldfjaldfjaM, georgia = LlkjLriLKjrleirka }
Administrators = { aaron } Operators = { barbara } CounterInterval = 5 ) group group1 ( SystemList
= { sys1 = 0, sys2 = 1 } AutoStartList = { sys1 } Administrators = { carmen } Operators = { dionne } )
group group2 ( SystemList = { sys2 = 0, sys1 = 1 } AutoStartList = { sys2 } Administrators =
{ edward } Operators = { fung } ) Which two users can persistently freeze group2? (Choose two.)
A.aaron
B.barbara
C.carmen
D.edward
E.fung
F.georgia
Correct:A D

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NO.18 An update to SQL Server makes changes to registry keys on the active system. Which type of
resource copies these changes to the target system on failover?
A.RegKey
B.KeyRep
C.Replicate
D.RegRep
Correct:D

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NO.19 If a persistent resource in a service group named SG1 faults, Veritas Cluster Server fails the
service group over to another system if which two conditions are met? (Choose two.)
A.The ManageFault attribute is set.
B.The AutoFailOver attribute is set.
C.Another system in the cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.
D.The AutoRestart attribute is set.
E.Another system in a different cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.
Correct:B C

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NO.20 What is the default level of authorization of a new Veritas Cluster Server user?
A.Cluster Administrator
B.Cluster Operator
C.Cluster Guest
D.Group Administrator
E.Group Operator
Correct:C

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