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Exam Code: BH0-001
Exam Name: ISEB (IT Service Management Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of these is/are TRUE?
1. Functional escalation is an essential part of the Incident Management process
2. All calls to the Service Desk should be treated as incidents
3. Service Requests can be handled by Service Desk Staff
A. 1 and 3
B. All three of them
C. Only 1
D. 1 and 2
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following places Problem Management activities in the correct order:
A. Identify and record, classify, investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, review the
change
B. Investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, classify, identify and record
C. Identify and record, investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, classify, review the
change
D. Review a change, classify, identify and record, investigate and diagnose, raise another
RFC
Answer: A

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NO.3 With which of the following processes is Problem Management least likely to
interface on a regular basis?
A. IT Financial Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

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NO.4 Possible problems with Change Management include:
A. Greater ability to absorb a large volume of change
B. Increased visibility and communication of changes
C. Lack of ownership of impacted services
D. Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs
Answer: C

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NO.5 Establishing a back-out plan
A. All of them
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
Answer: C

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4.Why is Service Management so important to IT service providers?
A. The success of many businesses depends upon the quality of their IT
B. It's the only way to manage IT in the Internet age
C. It's contained within the IT Infrastructure Library
D. It's the first non-proprietary initiative for the management of IT systems
Answer: A

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NO.6 Why is there sometimes conflict between the goals of Incident Management and
those of Problem Management?
A. Because specialist support staff do not properly document the work-arounds they
identify which consequently prevents the 1st line support staff from applying them the
next time the incident occurs
B. Because Problem Management is often carried out by technical staff who also have
operations responsibilities and who cannot allocate enough resources to problem solving
C. Because Problem Management is focusing on identifying permanent solutions and
therefore the speed with which these solutions are found is of secondary importance
D. Because Problem Management staff rarely give feedback spontaneously, forcing the
1st line support staff to chase them
Answer: C

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NO.7 A service-based (rather than a customer-based) SLA:
A. Covers all services for a particular customer
B. Covers a set of similar services, for a single customer
C. Covers all services
D. Covers a single service, for all of the customers of that service
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management
process?
A. The physical aspects of software control
B. Ensuring that the accuracy of CMDB entries concerning software CIs is maintained
C. Helping to determine the software release policy
D. Distributing software
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following activities may, exceptionally, be omitted for an urgent
change:
1. Recording that the change has been made
2. Testing the change
3. Holding a CAB meeting

NO.10 Who must always authorise a Request for Change before the change is built and
tested?
A. The Configuration Manager
B. The Change Initiator
C. The Change Manager
D. Release Management
Answer: C

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Exam Code: BH0-009
Exam Name: ISEB (ITSM Foundation Certificate in Problem & Incident Management)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The purpose of the problem specification is:
a.To document a factual description of the problem.
b.To show the boundaries of the problem.
c.To help eliminate possible causes.
d.To help identify distinctions.
A.a and c.
B.a, b and c.
C.b and d.
D.All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following activities would initially help identify how green an organisation currently is?
A. Developing a Stakeholder Map.
B. Drafting an action register.
C. Holding a fact-finding workshop.
D. Creating a carbon accounting system.
Answer: C

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NO.3 When looking at the Performance System, which is the correct sequence?
A.Situation, Performer, Response, Feedback, Consequences.
B.Consequences, Feedback, Situation, Performer, Response.
C.Situation, Performer, Response, Consequences, Feedback.
D.Performer, Feedback, Situation, Consequences, Response.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following activities is NOT part of Situation Appraisal?
A.Identify concerns.
B.Set priority.
C.Identify possible causes.
D.Plan involvement.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When generating alternatives why is an expanded number of choices desirable?
A.To make sure any 'pet' alternatives are considered.
B.To increase the chances of picking a winner.
C.To ensure a complete, balanced set of alternatives.
D.To ensure the recommendation gets approved.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In the Balance of Consequences, which of the consequence types should be used first to drive
behavioural change?
a)Immediate Positive.
b)Immediate Negative.
c)Delayed Positive.
d)Delayed Negative.
A.a and b.
B.c and d.
C.a only.
D.b only.
Answer: C

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NO.7 When confirming the most probable cause, you should choose methods that are
A.Easiest, quickest, cheapest, safest, surest.
B.Things that you can do right now.
C.Acceptable to everyone who will be involved.
D.Able to be done experimentally i.e.not in live.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In Decision Analysis, actions to reduce risk:
a)Take a great amount of planning.
b)Can be done quickly and simply.
c)Should only be done when the risks are high.
d)Should bring risk to an acceptable level.
A.a and b.
B.b and d.
C.c only.
D.d only.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Why are Turnaround Questions used when developing a problem specification?
A.To drill down to the most specific answer.
B.To get lots of information.
C.When you stop making progress
D.To involve more people.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Once you have found the cause of a problem, you should use Think Beyond the Fix to prevent
recurrence.What are two ways to Think Beyond the Fix?
A.Extend the cause, extend the fix.
B.Identify likely causes, take preventive action.
C.Identify distinctions, identify changes.
D.Identify likely effects, plan contingent action.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: EUCOC
Exam Name: ISEB (Intermediate Certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data centres )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Why has the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres been developed?
a. Because data centres are using an increasing amount of power and they need to maximise their
efficiency to reduce their impact on the power infrastructure.
b. Because the power consumption of data centres across Europe as a whole needs to fall to meet
agreed C02 targets.
c. Because many data centres have outdated designs which focus on perceived reliability at the expense
of cost and energy efficiency.
d. Because the energy consumption of data centres has become a significant business cost.
e. Because the United States (US) has taken a significant lead in energy conservation and EU-based data
centres need a code of conduct to compete in a global marketplace.
A. a, b, c and d
B. a, c and d
C. b and e
D. e only
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following BEST define the aims of the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres.?
a. To determine and accelerate the application of energy efficient technologies.
b. Develop practical voluntary commitments which when implemented improve the energy efficiency of
data centres and in so doing minimise the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
c. To develop and promote a set of easily understood metrics to measure the current efficiencies and
subsequent improvement.
d. To encourage the closure of data centres that are less energy efficient.
e. To ensure that the EU is visibly taking a lead in this important area of energy conservation.
A. a, b, c and d
B. d and e
C. a, b and c
D. e only
Answer: C

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NO.3 The numerical value associated with each Best Practice is shown for the following reason:
A. To allow operators to add up their total score in order that they can be compared with their competitors.
B. To allow the Code of Conduct administrators to properly assess each application.
C. To provide an independent scorecard for data centre owners.
D. To indicate the level of benefit from carrying out a Best Practice.
Answer: D

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NO.4 'Facility load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the following?
a. The UPS.
b. Lighting.
c. Air-conditioning units.
d. Monitors housed in racks.
e. Tape libraries
A. a, b, and c
B. a and d
C. b and c
D. d, and e
Answer: A

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NO.5 A facility's 'IT load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the
following?
a. The Power Distribution Units feeding the racks
b. Servers
c. Firewalls
d. Switches
e. Tape libraries
A. b, c. d and e
B. a, d and e
C. b and c
D. b. c and d
Answer: A

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Exam Code: BH0-013
Exam Name: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Business Analysis )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 It has been suggested that five clerical posts can be abolished when a new computer system is
implemented. Under which category of costs or benefits will this be recorded?
A. Tangible costs.
B. Tangible benefits.
C. Intangible costs.
D. Intangible benefits.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following statement is TRUE about the process view of an organisation?
A. It focuses on the customer of the organisation.
B. It focuses solely on the internal view of the organisation.
C. It focuses on the functions of an organisation.
D. It focuses on the organisational structure.
Answer: A

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NO.3 On a class diagram, what do the multiplicities represent?
A. The number of attributes held within each class.
B. The minimum and maximum number of operations in each class.
C. The minimum and maximum number of objects in each class.
D. The business rules for an association between two classes.
Answer: D

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NO.4 During which stage of the Business Analysis Process Model would a gap analysis be carried out?
A. Define requirements.
B. Analyse needs.
C. Evaluate the options.
D. Investigate situation.
Answer: B

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NO.5 The required competencies of a business analyst are classified into three categories. Which of the
following is one of these three categories.?
A. Management Qualities.
B. Business Knowledge.
C. IT Skills
D. Project Skills.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Given the cashflows below, which of the following is correct?
A. The project pays back in year 4 of the project.
B. The project does not pay back within the four year period.
C. The project pays back in year 2 of the project.
D. The project pays back in year 3 of the project.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following terms may be used to describe the attitude of a stakeholder who is NOT in favour
of the project but is probably not actively opposed to it?
A. Opponent.
B. Neutral.
C. Critic.
D. Blocker.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When should benefits realisation be carried out?
A. Immediately at the end of the project.
B. At the beginning of the project.
C. At the end of the finalised feasibility study.
D. Months or years after the end of the project.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which stage in the waterfall model is considered as several separate stages in the V model?
A. Development.
B. Analysis.
C. Testing.
D. Design.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A batch program runs every night to raise invoices. The next day these invoices are posted out to
customers by a clerk. Customers pay the invoices with cheques. The cheques are then banked by a clerk.
In this scenario, which of the following represents a business event?
A. System prints invoices.
B. Clerk sends invoices to customers.
C. Customer's cheque is received.
D. Clerk banks the cheque.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Business rules define how actions are to be performed. Under which of the following headings are
business rules considered?
A. Explicit or implicit management statements,
B. Statutory and internal policies.
C. Constraints and operational guidance.
D. Negotiable and non-negotiable limitations.
Answer: C

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NO.12 A stakeholder has been classified as 'some' on both the power/influence and interest axes of a
power/interest grid. Which of the following would be an appropriate way of managing this stakeholder?
A. Keep on side.
B. Keep watching.
C. Keep informed.
D. Keep satisfied.
Answer: A

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NO.13 A well formed requirement is said to comply with which of the following acronyms?
A. MOSCOW.
B. SMART.
C. OSCAR.
D. MOST.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the first stage of the waterfall systems development lifecycle?
A. Plan.
B. Analysis.
C. Feasibility Study.
D. Strategic Vision.
Answer: C

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NO.15 In which of the following business analysis areas does the traditional systems analyst role primarily
operate?
A. Quantifying costs and benefits.
B. Defining the needs of the business.
C. Implementing business changes.
D. Specifying IT system requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Different reactions may be observed when a change to working methods is proposed. These reactions
include:
a. Enthusiasm for the change.
b. Fear of the change.
c. Reduced performance on the job.
d. Reluctant acceptance of the change.
Which of the following represents the typical sequence of these four reactions?
A. b, d, c and a.
B. a, b, c and d.
C. b, c, d and a.
D. a, b, d and c.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What does the O' stand for in the CATVVOE analysis?
A. The objectives of the business system under review.
B. The opportunities for change in the business system under review.
C. The organisation of the business system under review.
D. The owner of the business system under review.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following investigation techniques involves following a user for one or two days in order to
find out what a particular job entails?
A. Scenario analysis.
B. Protocol analysis.
C. Shadowing.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: C

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NO.19 In a particular organisation it is common practice to call all managers by their first name. It is part of the
culture of the organisation. Newcomers are quickly corrected if they do not follow this informal approach.
What would knowing about this convention be classified as in Requirements Engineering?
A. Explicit individual knowledge.
B. Tacit individual knowledge.
C. Explicit corporate knowledge.
D. Tacit corporate knowledge.
Answer: D

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NO.20 As part of an investigation a Business Analyst has devised a form for users of an existing system to use
to keep track of the tasks they undertake during their working day. Which of the following describes this
investigation technique?
A. Special purpose records,
B. Scenario analysis.
C. Questionnaires.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: IL0-786
Exam Name: Intel (Designing Flexible Wireless LAN Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Why should you use more than one antenna on an Access Point? (Choose two.)
A. The coverage area is larger.
B. An Access Point cannot operate with only one antenna.
C. Null zones within the coverage area are reduced or eliminated.
D. Reception is better if the transmitter is at the edge of the range.
Answer: CD

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NO.2 Which type is ambient RF background noise?
A. wideband
B. sideband
C. edgeband
D. narrowband
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is FHSS?
A. Full Heterodyne Spread Spectrum
B. Frequency Hash Streaming System
C. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
D. Function Harmonics Spread Sequence
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is multipathing?
A. radio signals being reflected, refracted, and absorbed
B. a method used by wireless Access Points to correctly route traffic
C. a part of the design process used to determine Access Point location
D. a method used by mobile units to determine the best Access Point to associate with
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement is true about digital signals as a receiver moves further away from
the transmitter?
A. The gain is higher.
B. The amplitude is lower.
C. The amplitude is higher.
D. The delay spread increases.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the width of a single channel used by FHSS systems?
A. 1 MHz
B. 2 MHz
C. 11 MHz
D. 22 MHz
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which type of network should you use for wireless communication between a
workstation and its peripherals?
A. Wide Area Network (WAN)
B. Local Area Network (LAN)
C. Personal Area Network (PAN)
D. Satellite Area Network (SAN)
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are antennas that radiate a toroid-shaped pattern?
A. broadband
B. directional
C. omni-directional
D. multi-directional
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is DSSS?
A. Digital Signal Stream System
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
C. Doppler Sending Spread Spectrum
D. Designated System Spread Spectrum
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two are characteristics of narrow band RF transmissions? (Choose two.)
A. require smaller antenna radiators
B. have an inherent high level of diversity
C. occupy less RF space than wideband RF transmissions
D. are more susceptible to interference than wideband RF transmissions
Answer: CD

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Exam Code: 000-M22
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational Application Developer Tech Sales Mastery V1)
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Total Q&A: 34 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 When usingAgent Controller to gather information about applications running on a remote system you
needto installAgent Controller:
A. On the same system as RAD is installed
B. On a remote system to which you would like to publish your application
C. On the remote system fromwhich the log files are imported
D. On the system where you runtest cases
Answer:B

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NO.2 What is the scriptable bytecode instrumentation (BCI) framework that is used to write Java codefragm
ents?
A. A Memory Leak Framework
B. A Probekit
C. A Profile Toolkit
D. A Snippet Generator
Answer:B

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NO.3 Which one of the following editors does not come with IBM Rational Application Developer?
A. WSDL Editor
B. XSL Editor
C. Java Visual Editor
D. Hibernate Mapping Editor
Answer:D

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NO.4 Why is IBM Rational Application Developer(RAD) important to SOA?
A. RAD is the Enterprise Service Bus (ESB) for SOA architecture.
B. SOA is a graphical extension to automated architecture. RAD graphical interface allows SOAautomat
ed architecture todevelop service components.
C. RAD does not support any features for SOA, so it is not important for SOA.
D. RAD has the capability to develop SOA pieces such as Web services,which can be an integral part of
an SOA.
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which one of the following provides for remoteWSDL validation?
A. ServletWizard
B. Web Services Wizard
C. XpathWizard
D. SessionWizard
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 000-734
Exam Name: IBM (DB2 9 Advanced DB Administrator for Linux,UNIX,and Windows)
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Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A batch application executes a large number of update statements. The service level agreement for
the application states that the application must complete its work as quickly as possible to ensure that
dependent workloads can start ontime. What is one way to help the application complete quickly?
A. Code the application to issue a LOCK TABLE statement.
B. Code the application to issue a LOCK ROW statement.
C. Decrease the number of I/O servers.
D. Increase the locklist parameter.
Answer:A

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NO.2 Table TAB1 was created using the following statement: CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT, c2 INT, c3 INT,
c4 INT, c5 INT); If column C1 is unique and queries typically access columns C1, C2 and C3 together,
which statement(s) will createindex(es) that will provide optimal query performance?
A. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c1); CREATE INDEX xtab2 ON tab1 (c2) INCLUDE (c3);
B. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c1) INCLUDE (c2, c3);
C. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c3, c2, c1);
D. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c2) INCLUDE (c1, c3);
Answer: B

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NO.3 What would indicate intra-partition parallelism in an Optimizer Plan?
A. BTQ
B. LTQ
C. IP
D. DTQ
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which server houses the database partitions in the AIX BCU V2.1?
A. IBM System p5 570
B. IBM System p5 575
C. IBM System p5 590
D. IBM System p5 595
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which action(s) will cause a compression dictionary to be removed from a table?
A. Set the table COMPRESS attribute to NO.
B. Set the table COMPRESS attribute to NO; run REORG against the table.
C. Set the table COMPRESS attribute to NO; run INSPECTRESETDICTIONARY against the table.
D. Set the table COMPRESS attribute to NO; run RUNSTATS against the table.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A database administrator wants to design a multi-partition database that can take advantage of both
intra-partition parallelism and inter-partition parallelism. Which configuration will allow the use of these
types of parallelism while using the least number of hardware components (servers, processors)?
A. one server having at least two processors
B. two servers having one processor and one logical database partition
C. one server having four processors and two logical database partitions
D. two servers each having four processors and two logical database partitions
Answer: C

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NO.7 When is the connection concentrator enabled?
A. When the value of MAX_CONNECTIONS is greater than the value of MAX_COORDAGENTS.
B. When the value of MAX_AGENTS is greater than the value of MAX_CLIENTS.
C. When the value of NUM_AGENTS is greater than the value of MAX_AGENTS.
D. When the value of NUM_CONNECTIONS is greater than the value of NUM_COORDAGENTS.
Answer:A

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NO.8 When a database administrator chooses the dimensions for an MDC table, which two characteristics
should beconsidered? (Choose two.)
A. the query transaction rate
B. numeric data versus character data
C. extent size
D. the cardinality of the candidate columns
E. prefetch size
Answer: CD

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NO.9 Given a SHEAPTHRES value of 2560, in which two cases will a SHEAPTHRES_SHR value of 1024
be meaningful? (Choose two.)
A. INTRA_PARALLEL NO
B. MAX_CONNECTIONS 2000, MAX_COORDAGENTS 100
C. MAX_AGENTS 100, MAX_CONNECTIONS 2000
D. MAX_CONNECTIONS 500, MAX_COORDAGENTS 1000
E. INTRA_PARALLEL YES
Answer: BE

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NO.10 A database administrator needs to create a table with key columns C1 (i.e. YearDay), C2, and C3. This
table needs tobe partitioned by column C1 with three months per data partition. Additionally, data needs
to be organized by columns C2 and C3, so that all rows within any three month date range are clustered
together based on 12 months of data. Which CREATE TABLE statement will accomplish this objective?
A. CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT,c2 CHAR(2), c3 INT,c4 CHAR(2))PARTITION BY RANGE (c2)
(STARTING 200601 ENDING 200612 EVERY 3)ORGANIZE BY DIMENSIONS (c2, c3))
B. CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT,c2 CHAR(2), c3 INT,c4 CHAR(2))PARTITION BY RANGE (c1)
(STARTING 200601 ENDING 200612 EVERY 3)ORGANIZE BY DIMENSIONS (c2, c3))
C. CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT,c2 CHAR(2), c3 INT,c4 CHAR(2))PARTITION BY RANGE (c1)
(STARTING 200601 ENDING 200612 EVERY 3)ORGANIZE BY DIMENSIONS (c2))
D. CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT,c2 CHAR(2), c3 INT,c4 CHAR(2))PARTITION BY RANGE (c1)
(STARTING 200601 ENDING 200612 EVERY 3)ORGANIZE BY DIMENSIONS (c3))
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which data organization schemes are supported?
A. PARTITION BY HASH and ORGANIZE BY
B. PARTITION BY RANGE and ORGANIZE BY KEY SEQUENCE
C. PARTITION BY HASH and ORGANIZE BY KEY SEQUENCE
D. PARTITION BY RANGE and ORGANIZE BY
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which statement is true about clustering indexes in a DPF environment?
A. The partitioning key columns should be added to all indexes with the INCLUDE option.
B. It is not possible to have a clustering index in a DPF environment.
C. The index columns should be prefixed by the partitioning key columns.
D. The partitioning key columns should be added immediately after the column in the index with the
highest cardinality.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which procedure will successfully configure the memory areas within a database, including buffer
pools, to use the Self Tuning Memory Manager (STMM)?
A. 1) Set the SELF_TUNING_MEM database configuration parameter to ON.2) Set the relevant
configuration parameters within the database configuration file to AUTOMATIC. 3) Use the ALTER
BUFFERPOOL command to change the size of all buffer pools to AUTOMATIC.
B. 1) Set the SELF_TUNING_MEM database configuration parameter to ON.2) Use the ALTER
BUFFERPOOL command to change the size of all buffer pools to AUTOMATIC.
C. 1) Set the SELF_TUNING_MEM database configuration parameter to ON.
Answer:A

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NO.14 If the sort heap threshold parameter SHEAPTHRES_SHR is set to a value of 0, what will happen?
A. All sorts will be done in a temporary table space.
B. The shared sort memory allocation will be calculated by DB2.
C. No shared memory is allocated for sorting.
D. All sorts will be done in shared memory.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which registry variable should be set to keep the buffer pools in memory on AIX and Linux?
A. DB2_KEEP_BP
B. DB2_PINNED_BP
C. DB2MEMDISCLAIM
D. DB2MEMMAXFREE
Answer: B

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NO.16 A database administrator would like to examine repartitioning options for a partitioned database named
PRODDB. A workload has been captured on the system (Windows) and is stored in a file named
WORKLOAD.SQL. What is the proper command to run the Design Advisor so that it will evaluate the
information stored in the file and give advice on re-partitioning?
A. db2advis -d proddb -i workload.sql -P
B. db2advis -d proddb -i workload.sql -partitioning
C. db2advis -d proddb -i workload.sql -m P
D. db2advis -d proddb -i workload.sql -m ALL
Answer: C

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NO.17 Table TAB1 was created using the following statement: CREATE TABLE tab1 (c1 INT, c2 INT, c3 INT,
c4 INT, c5 INT); If column C1 is unique and queries typically access columns C1 and C2 together, which
statement(s) will create index(es) that will provide optimal query performance?
A. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c1) include (c2);
B. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c1);
CREATE INDEX xtab2 ON tab1 (c3) INCLUDE (c2);
C. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c2, c1);
D. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX xtab1 ON tab1 (c2) INCLUDE (c1);
Answer:A

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NO.18 If the ADD DBPARTITIONNUM command is used to add a new database partition to an existing DB2
instance,which statement is correct?
A. All existing databases in the instance are expanded to the new database partition but data cannot be
stored on the newpartition until it has been added to a partition group.
B. Database partition groups within existing databases will automatically include the new database
partition and willredistribute their existing data to the new partition.
C. Any single partition databases within the instance will automatically become multi-partition databases
once the newpartition is added to the instance.
D. A database administrator would need to modify the db2nodes.cfg file to complete the addition of the
new partition tothe instance.
Answer:A

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NO.19 In which two environments would intra-partition parallelism be used? (Choose two.)
A. Single database partition, single processor
B. Single database partition, multiple processors
C. Multiple database partitions, single processor
D. Multiple database partitions, multiple processors
Answer: BD

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NO.20 A database administrator needs to update a table named TRANSACT by removing February 2005 data
and replacing it with February 2007 data. What are the proper steps, in the correct order, required to
accomplish this?
A. 1) ALTER TABLE transact DETACH PARTITION feb05 INTO newtable 2) LOAD FROM transact.del
OF DEL REPLACE INTO newtable 3) ALTER TABLE transact ATTACH PARTITION feb07 STARTING
'02/01/2007' ENDING '02/28/2007' FROM new table 4) SET INTEGRITY FOR transact
B. 1) ALTER TABLE transact DETACH PARTITION feb05 INTO newtable 2) LOAD FROM transact.del
OF DEL REPLACE INTO newtable 3) ALTER TABLE transact ATTACH PARTITION feb07 STARTING
'01/01/2007' ENDING '02/28/2007' FROM new table 4) SET INTEGRITY FOR transact
C. 1) ALTER TABLE transact DETACH PARTITION feb05 INTO newtable 2) LOAD FROM transact.del
OF DEL REPLACE INTO newtable 3) ALTER TABLE transact ATTACH PARTITION feb07 STARTING
'02/01/2007' ENDING '02/28/2007' FROM new table 4) RUNSTATS ON TABLE transact
D. 1) ALTER TABLE transact DETACH PARTITION feb05 INTO newtable 2) LOAD FROM transact.del
OF DEL REPLACE INTO newtable 3) ALTER TABLE transact ATTACH PARTITION feb07 STARTING
'02/01/2007' ENDING '02/28/2007' FROM new table 4) REORG TABLE transact
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 000-647
Exam Name: IBM (Rational Performance Tester)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is the recommended number of variables you should change at one time for tests that will be
compared?
A. all
B. four
C. none
D. one
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the first step in workload definition?
A. clarify and document the goals of the performance-testing project
B. examine the production environment being tested
C. identify test variables and user groups
D. record a performance test to verify that the application is testable
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which type of performance test determines the conditions under which a system fails and how it fails?
A. load
B. longevity and endurance
C. stress
D. volume
Answer: C

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NO.4 You want to use test data in RPT custom code that comes from a server (for example, to validate a
response or to calculate a running total). What must you do to accomplish this?
A. create a datapool value that gets its value from a test reference for the server value, then add this to
the custom code argument list
B. create a reference for the server value at the beginning of the test, then add this to the custom code
argument list
C. create a reference for the server value anywhere before/above the point in the test where the value is
returned, then add this to the custom code argument list
D. create a reference for the server value at the footer of the test, then add this to the custom code
argument list
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the goal of the workload analysis?
A. to clarify the objective of the workload interval
B. to ensure that tests performed represent real user activity
C. to gather statistics about the system under test
D. to identify the critical measurement points for each test
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are the most common measurement criteria collected during performance tests?
A. execution timestamp and passed verification points
B. object recognition and verification points
C. response times and throughput
D. tester names and test user groups
Answer: C

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NO.7 What must you do if you want to record tests on a web browser other than Microsoft Internet Explorer?
A. download and install the RPT IE plug-in for the supported web browser from developerWorks
B. select Enable Environments for Testing from the Configure menu and add the web browser as
described in the product documentation
C. manually configure the browser to communicate to the server(s) via a SOCKS proxy as described in
the product documentation
D. manually configure the web browser to use the Microsoft JVM as described in the product
documentation
Answer: C

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NO.8 How can you create a copy of an RPT test?
A. right-click the test; select Copy from the menu; enter a new name for the copied test
B. select the test; from the File menu, click ? Save As ; enter a new name for the copied test
C. switch to the Navigator view; select the source Java file (*.rec) of the test; from the File menu, click ?
Save As; enter a new name for the copied test
D. from the Navigator view, right-click the .recmodel file; select Generate Test; choose Performance Test
Generator; enter a new name for the copied test
Answer: D

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NO.9 You manipulate the execution of steps in a test by repeating sequences of a transaction. How can you
add further control?
A. add a Loop test element and then Events and Dependencies in the test suite
B. add do or for loop statements to the test source code and then use either the breakLoop() or the
continueLoop() method
C. add a Loop test element and then custom code classes with either the breakLoop() or the
continueLoop() method
D. add a Loop test element and then Loop Control test elements in the test editor
Answer: C

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NO.10 What documents all artifacts that define the system, users, and tasks associated with the target
workload for the performance testing effort?
A. datapool document
B. product manual
C. test schedule guide
D. workload analysis document
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-418
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Websphere Datastage V.8.0)
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Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which two methods can be used for adding messages to a message handler? (Choose two.)
A. Import message handler from existing message handler dsx.
B. Drag and drop a message from the job log onto the message handler.
C. Type in the message rule by hand.
D. Use the add rule to message hander interface.
Answer: CD

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NO.2 Your job is to setup credential mappings for DataStage developers within DataStage. Which two
statements are true?(Choose two.)
A. You must be a Information Server Suite administrator to complete this task.
B. You can create Information Server Suite users and groups in the Web console.
C. You can create new Information Server Suite users by using the DataStage Administrator.
D. You can create new users in the operating system level and map these credentials within DataStage
Administrator.
Answer: AB

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NO.3 A DataStage job is sourcing a flat file which contains a VARCHAR field. This field needs to be mapped
to a targetfield which is a date. Which will accomplish this?
A. Use a Column Exporter to perform the type conversion.
B. DataStage handles the type conversion automatically.
C. Use the TimestampFromDateTime function in a Transformer.
D. Use the Modify stage to perform the type conversion.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.You are asked to convert a relational source, as shown in the exhibit, into
three separate XML files. How would you accomplish this task?
A. Set "Output mode" setting "Aggregate all rows" under "Transformation Settings" of the Output link of an
XML Output stage.
B. Set "Output mode" setting "Use Trigger" on column "Customer ID" under "Transformation Settings" of
the Output link of an XML Output stage.
C. Set "Output mode" setting "Separate rows" on column "Customer ID" under "Transformation Settings"
of the Output link of an XML Output stage.
D. Set "Output mode" setting "Single row" under "Transformation Settings" of the Output link of an XML
Output stage.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your job uses the MQ connector stage to read messages from an MQ queue. The job should retrieve
the message ID into the MessageID field and parse the payload into two fields: Name is to get the first ten
characters, Description is toget the remaining characters.What will accomplish this?
A. First column is MessageID as Binary 24; second column is Name as Binary 10; select
WSMG.MSPAYLOAD data element; third column is Description as VarBinary 200; select
WSMG.MSPAYLOAD data element.
B. First column is MessageID; select the WSMQ.MSGID data element for the Message ID field;second
column isDescription as VarBinary 200; third column is Name as Binary 10.
C. First column is MessageID; select the WSMQ.MSGID data element for the Message ID field; second
column is Name; select WSMG.MSPAYLOAD data element; third column is Description; select
WSMG.MSPAYLOAD data element.
D. First column is MessageID; select the WSMQ.MSGID data element for the Message ID field; second
column is Nameas Binary 10; third column is Description as VarBinary 200.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A parallel job combines rows from a source DB2 table with historical information maintained in two
separate Oracle tables. Only rows in the DB2 source whose key values match either Oracle table are
output to a target Teradata table. Both Oracle tables have identical column definitions and are stored in
the same Oracle instance. Which two design techniques would satisfy this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Using a master DB2 Enterprise stage, merge by dropping unmatched masters against a single Oracle
Enterprise stage with custom SQL with UNION ALL.
B. Combine the inputs from the DB2 Enterprise stage and two Oracle Enterprise stages using the Sort
options of theFunnel stage defined onthe key columns.
C. Use a separate Oracle Enterprise stage for each source table to a Funnel stage and then perform an
inner join withrows from a DB2 Enterprise stage.
D. Use a Lookup stage to combine the DB2 Enterprise input with each Oracle Enterprise reference link
using rangepartitioning to limit each reference by historical data values.
Answer: AC

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NO.7 Which two steps are required to change from a normal lookup to a sparse lookup in an ODBC
Enterprise stage?(Choose two.)
A. Change the lookup option in the stage properties to "Sparse".
B. Replace columns at the beginning of a SELECT statement with a wildcard asterisk (*).
C. Establish a relationship between the key field column in the source stage with the database table field.
D. Sort the data on the reference link.
Answer: AC

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NO.8 You are working on a job in which a sequential file cannot be read in parallel. In an attempt to improve
job performance, you first define a single large string column for the non-parallel sequential file read.
Which stage may be used to parse the large string in parallel?
A. the Column Import stage
B. the Column Export stage
C. the Make Vector stage
D. the Split Vector stage
Answer: A

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NO.9 When tuning a parallel process, it is necessary to measure the amount of system resources that are
used by each instance of a stage. Which two methods enable the collection of CPU time used by each
instance of a stage? (Choose two.)
A. Set the environment variable $APT_PM_PLAYER_TIMING=true.
B. Invoke vmstat before the job run and after the job completes.
C. Select the Record job performance data check box from Job Properties.
D. Set the environment variable $DS_MAKE_JOB_REPORT=2.
Answer: AC

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NO.10 What is the lowest CPU cost partitioning method for parallel stage to parallel stage?
A. Range
B. Modulus
C. Entire
D. Same
Answer: D

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.In the exhibit, a Funnel stage has two Input Links. Input 1(Seq_File) comes
from a sequential file with set "Readers per Node" set to "2" , Input 2(Dataset) comes from a Data Set
created in parallel (three-way parallel). Within the Funnelstage, the funnel type is set to "Sequence". The
parallel configuration file contains three nodes.How many instances of the Funnel stage run in parallel?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
Answer: C

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NO.12 You have created a parallel job in which there are several stages that you want to be able to re-use in
other jobs. Youdecided to create a parallel shared container from these stages. Identify two things that
are true about this shared container. (Choose two.)
A. It can be used in sequencer jobs.
B. It can take advantage of Run Time Column Propagation (RCP).
C. It can be used in Transformer stage derivations.
D. It can have job parameters to resolve stage property values.
Answer: BD

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NO.13 What describes the column information specified in Orchestrate schemas? (Choose two.)
A. C++ data types, such as string[max 145]
B. column properties, such as nullability
C. SQL data types, such as Char(20)
D. record format information, such as record delimiter
Answer: AB

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.In the exhibit, how many parallel partitions will each DataStage operator run
without specifying a "node pool andresource constraint" or actual "node constraint"?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: C

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NO.15 A job design reads from a complex flat file, performs some transformations on the data, and outputs
the results to a WISD output stage. What are two ways that parameter values can be passed to this job at
run-time? (Choose two.)
A. Pass the parameter values at the time of the service request.
B. Change the properties of the information provider and redeploy.
C. Include the parameter values in the data.
D. Execute a DSSetParam with the values at job execution time.
Answer: AB

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NO.16 When invoking a job from a third-party scheduler, it is often desirable to invoke a job and wait for its
completion in order to return the job's completion status. Which three commands would invoke a job
named "BuildWarehouse" in project DevProject and wait for the job's completion? (Choose three.)
A. dsjob -run -log DevProject BuildWarehouse
B. dsjob -run -jobstatus DevProject BuildWarehouse
C. dsjob -run -userstatus DevProject BuildWarehouse
D. dsjob -run DevProject BuildWarehouse
E. dsjob -run -wait DevProject BuildWarehouse
Answer: BCE

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NO.17 In which two situations would you use the Web Services Client stage? (Choose two.)
A. You want to deploy a service.
B. You need the Web service to act as either a data source or a data target during an operation.
C. You do not need both input and output links in a single web service operation.
D. You need to create a WSDL.
Answer: BC

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NO.18 Which three actions can improve sort performance in a DataStage job? (Choose three.)
A. Specify only the key columns which are necessary.
B. Use the stable-sort option to avoid the random ordering of non-key data.
C. Minimize the number of sorts used within a job flow.
D. Adjusting the "Restrict Memory Usage" option in the Sort stage.
E. Run the job sequentially so that only one sort process is invoked.
Answer: ACD

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NO.19 Which three lookup types may be performed in the Lookup stage? (Choose three.)
A. Equality match
B. Negative match
C. Range on stream link
D. Range on the reject link
E. Range on the reference link
Answer: ACE

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NO.20 Which three statements are true about File Sets? (Choose three.)
A. File sets are partitioned.
B. File sets are unpartitioned.
C. File sets are stored as a single file.
D. File sets are readable by external applications.
E. File sets are stored as header file and data files.
Answer: ADE

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